The Volokh Conspiracy
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Connecticut "Racial Ridicule" Ban Challenged in Federal Court
The law is unconstitutional as written—but it has also been used by prosecutors far beyond its specific terms.
Connecticut General Statutes § 53-37 provides:
- "Any person who, by his advertisement,
- "ridicules or holds up to contempt any person or class of persons,
- "on account of the creed, religion, color, denomination, nationality or race of such person or class of persons,
- "shall be fined not more than fifty dollars or imprisoned not more than thirty days or both."
The statute is facially unconstitutional, because it suppresses speech based on its content (and viewpoint), and because there's no First Amendment exception for speech that insults based on race or religion. As the Court has repeatedly held, racist and religiously bigoted speech is as constitutionally protected as speech that expresses other ideas. To quote Justice Alito's opinion in Matal v. Tam (2017) (with which the concurrence seemed to fully agree),
Speech that demeans on the basis of race, ethnicity, gender, religion, age, disability, or any other similar ground is hateful; but the proudest boast of our free speech jurisprudence is that we protect the freedom to express "the thought that we hate."
Beauharnais v. Illinois (1952) did uphold a "group libel" statute that banned derogatory statements about racial and religious groups—but that decision is widely and rightly regarded as obsolete, given the last 50 years of First Amendment jurisprudence. The only part of Beauharnais that likely survives is its general conclusion that there is a libel exception to the First Amendment; and since then, the libel exception has been dramatically narrowed.
Now on its face, of course, the Connecticut statute only covers "advertisement[s]." And the statute was enacted in 1917, as "An Act concerning Discrimination at Places of Public Accommodation"; it really was aimed at "advertisement[s]" for businesses (though on its face it may also cover political advertisements), not at racist opinions generally.
But Connecticut prosecutors haven't been enforcing the law as it is written. I have found no prosecutions for advertisements that ridicule people based on race or religion. The two most-publicized recent incidents (see the UConn case and the Fairfield Warde High School case), for instance, involve nothing that could be labeled an advertisement.
In some earlier incidents—about a dozen that I've seen, going back about 20 years—prosecutors seem to be mostly enforcing the statute to punish people for race- or religion-based "fighting words": generally speaking, face-to-face personal insults that include racial slurs or, in one case I found, religious slurs. (The two most recent incidents don't involve such face-to-face personal insults.) And Connecticut does have a general and constitutionally valid fighting words statute (which covers racist fighting words alongside others): the "breach of the peace" statute, which is valid precisely because it has been limited to in-person insults that risk an immediate fight.
Yet even punishing fighting words under the racial ridicule statute is unconstitutional, for two reasons:
- Such insults may be offensive and empty of serious arguments, but they aren't advertisements. The defendants whom the prosecutors had prosecuted were not guilty of the crime they were charged with, given the plain text of the statute. And there are no appellate decisions reinterpreting the text of the statute (as there are for some statutes), so the defendants weren't guilty under either the law as written or the law as authoritatively construed. Indeed, the one nonprecedential decision I could find, National Socialist White People's Party v. Southern New England Telephone Co. (D. Mass. 1975) (3-judge court), and the one decision cited in that case, State v. Jensen (Conn. Cir. Ct. 1969), read the statute—consistently with its text—as genuinely limited to "advertisements." [UPDATE: Just to be clear, this is a reason why punishing fighting words under the statute would violate the Due Process Clause, because the text and judicial interpretation of the statute doesn't give "fair notice" that the statute applies to the conduct.]
- Even if the statute were somehow read as banning race- or religion-based fighting words—contrary to its text—there's a Supreme Court decision squarely holding such selective fighting words bans unconstitutional: R.A.V. v. City of St. Paul (1992).
In any event, Connecticut lawyer Mario Cerame has just filed a lawsuit (Cerame v. Lamont) on his own behalf, seeking to invalidate the statute. He had represented one of the defendants in the earlier UConn case, but the prosecutors dismissed that racial ridicule charge, so there was no occasion for him to challenge the statute on appeal; filing the lawsuit for himself can get the courts to consider the question going forward. I look forward to seeing how the state will try to defend the statute.
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Just wondering; can conservatives (a creed) charge social media platforms for their contempt under that law?
"conservatives (a creed)"
Creed: ": a statement of the basic beliefs of a religion"
Check's out.
https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/creed
What about mocking lawyers? They cannot help how stupid they are. Their hierarchy should be arrested, tried, and summarily executed for their insurrection against the constitution, and for their assisting the enemies of our nation.
"Creed" in such statutes has been uniformly interpreted as meaning religious belief.
In addition to fighting words, I suspect a narrow commercial speech exception would be constitutional. It’s clear that a state can prohibit an advertisement that says “Apartment for rent. No Negroes need apply” under something akin to the crime facilitating speech doctrine. So I think the stste could also prohi it an advertisement that says something like “Apartment for clean-living family. Negroes are dirty.” This is a barely disguised version of “No Negroes need apply.”
So if you say something disparaging about a group in the context of an advertisement for a good or service, I think there’s an argument to be made that you are communicating thst you don’t intend, or at least don’t want, to provide the good or service to the group and are attempting to discourage them from applying them.
So I think there could be a constitutional version of a racial ridicule statute that is specifically connected to the statute. I think that the gravamen of the offence would need to be that the advertisement tends to have the effect of discouraging the disparaged group from seeking the good or service advertised - that it is an indirect way of saying, a functional equivalent of saying directly, “No Negroes need apply.”
I’m not sure specific intent would be tequired. Itmight be sufficient that the advertisement tends to have that effect in an ordinary reasonable person.
But it seems to me that, sufficiently narrowed and focused, there could be a constitutional version of this type of statute.
Sorry, a constitutional version of a racial ridicule statute that is specifically connected to an advertisement.
This may have been what the Connecticut legislature was originally intending to do. Of course overbreadth applies, especially since as Professor Volokh has been reporting prosecutors have attempted to apply this statute way outside this context, so overbreadth here is real, not speculative as it often is. That said, a state court might be able to give it a limiting construction that would save its constitutionaliy.
Your rationale is focused on advertisements that intend, or at least tend to show, illegal discrimination in some later transaction. Public accommodation laws have long been read to support that. But it doesn't seem like the best analogy or distinguishing case for a "hate speech in advertisements" law.
I would instead consider something like: "Use our product, don't like like a lousy ____”. Such an advertisement would probably seem vile, and perhaps counterproductive, but would a law banning such an advertisement be constitutional?
I think a reasonable jury could find that such an advertisement is intended to (or actually does) discourage ____ from attempting to buy the product.
Because of the connection to a commercial product, the standard here is commercial speech, not political speech. And I think that ar the very least, the reduced scrutiny given commercial speech would enable a prohibition on this type of advertisement to pass muster. In any event its the specific connection to a commercial product that makes it less like political speech and more like crime facilitating soeech.
Just as Don Corleone doesn’t have to actually say that he wants someone killed, he just has to indicate that’s what he wants indirectly, discriminators don’t have to actually say they don’t want _____ to buy their product, it’s sufficient if they indicate that that’s what they want indirectly.
I really think we need to focus more on black people don't you? I mean we just don't have enough of that.
I wonder how much they'll hassle him on the standing issue.
It's a good question. Can you make a facial challenge that ignores a word ("advertisement") in the statute that the police themselves have ignored? And, if not, can you make an "as applied" challenge if you haven't violated the statute?
In before Lathrop tells us all what a good and proper thing it is for the state to be punishing people for unapproved speech.
He and about a hundred others... There's no shortage of "speech police" enthusiasts here.
Uh yea completely unconstitutional. I mean once again I'm sure if a BLM protest ridicules white bystanders that they will be fully prosecuted under this law. LMFAO
#blackprivelege
Have the person(s) who shot that woman for saying "All lives matter" ever caught / prosecuted? I'm guessing not...
What is the case? His clients case was dropped, so what is the basis?
He claims that he intends to violate the statute in the future.
Shocking that prosecutors would engage in any sort of misconduct….NOT
Using the wrong law to charge someone seems to be a simpler challenge than going the constitutional rout.
How is waiting until you're prosecuted for violating the law "easier" than a pre-enforcement challenge?
I missed an important paragraph at the bottom, it seems.