Jacob Sullum | December 28, 2006
Yesterday the U.S. Court of Appeals for the 9th Circuit sided with federal investigators seeking to examine the supposedly anonymous and confidential results of drug tests taken by baseball players in 2003. Management assured the players that the tests were intended only to measure the prevalence of steroid use in Major League Baseball and that individual results would not be publicly revealed or become the basis for disciplinary action. The laboratories that performed the tests were supposed to destroy the samples and the records linking results to particular players, but the Justice Department used subpoenas to force the labs to preserve them for use in its investigation of illegal steroid distribution. Although U.S. district courts in San Francisco, Los Angeles, and Nevada ruled that using information from the tests violated the players' privacy rights, a 9th Circuit panel disagreed. The decision, which provoked a stong, 70-page dissent, does not seem to be available online yet, so I have not read it. But in addition to threatening the privacy of medical records, it seems likely to undermine scientific research that depends on assurances of confidentiality to elicit information. If subjects in studies of sensitive topics such as drug use, sex, and gambling know researchers' promises can be overridden by federal prosecutors, why should they agree to participate?
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The civil liberties issues are important, but forgive a baseball
fan this selfish observation: if this decision stands, the
newly-wrought labor peace in MLB-land may well collapse. The bad PR
caused by the congressional hearings on steroid use pressured the
players' union into agreeing to a tougher anti-doping policy. If
players who are now "clean" are going to have past use exposed, the
new labor agreement may just blow up.
Kevin
I was always confused about what the hell congress was doing holding hearings regarding steroid use? Is it because baseball is a NATIONAL past time?
It's because Congress has all but legislated out of existence the concept of privacy, free will and personal responsibility.
If the federal investigators are looking for evidence of a
crime, you can't hide evidence of that in a private contract. I
don't care whether the crime is something valid like
murder-for-hire or bogus like sex-for-hire. in either case, taking
pictures of the act and then protecting the film in secrecy with a
Non-Disclosure Agreement is a no-no for obvious reasons. The NDA
won't protect jack in these cases.
Believe me, I could charge a lot more for my services if I could
set up contractual fences around criminal evidence.
OTOH, if there is not a criminal investigation here, then I don't
see a sufficient reason for upsetting the parties private
arrangements.
Val: I seem to remember it has to do with the fact that MLB is a monopoly of some sort, which allows Congress to put its grubby mits all over, around, and in it in ways that are not allowed in competitive industries.
Sam,
True. However, the doctor/patient relationship does enjoy such
protection.
"If subjects in studies of sensitive topics such as drug use,
sex, and gambling know researchers' promises can be overridden by
federal prosecutors, why should they agree to participate?"
Exactly the point. No subjects, no studies. We don't need none of
that pesky science stuff reflecting poorly on our War on Bad
Stuff(tm)
Allowing a fucking neocon moron like George W. McCheney-Hitler to have ownership in MLB caused this to happen. And if you disagree with me, then go fuck yourself you right-wing nutjob. /joe
The decision can be read as a PDF here. The dissent begins on page 47 of the PDF.
Sam,
True. However, the doctor/patient relationship does enjoy such
protection.
I wouldn't assume that this falls into the doctor-patient category.
In fact, I doubt it does because it does because these tests were
not designed to help diagnose or treat the players. Would be an
interesting lawsuit, though, that I would love to litigate from
either side.
Doctor patient confidentiality also may not apply because it is probably waived when the communications are used to facilitate committing or getting away with a crime.
val:
Congress holds hearings on whatever it damn well pleases. Even if
the legislation it may be contemplating is manifestly
unconstitutional, it is under no obligation to justify its
investigations. SCOTUS waits until cases deriving from the laws
eventually passed work their way through the appellate system
before ruling them in or out, but it would never shut down an
ongoing congressional investigation. That would be a "political
question," and the courts don't want to cross the "separation of
powers" line in that regard, anymore than they would put up with
Congress butting into The Court's internal workings.
SCOTUS did authorize taking the Fifth Amendment before a
congressional panel, but I don't remember it ever backing up a
citizen who refused to testify for other reasons. I, for one, would
be sorely tempted to refuse a Congressional subpoena on 9th
Amendment grounds, claiming that any legislation they were
contemplating on Issue X would violate unenumerated rights, and
exceeded the powers granted in Article I, anyway. I shall not be so
stupid, should I ever get served, to put that fantasy plan into
effect.
too many steves refers to baseball's "antitrust
exemption." Organized Baseball was held by the courts to not be
"interstate commerce" for the purposes of the anti-trust acts. In
the Curt Flood case the Court allowed as to how the exemption was
still valid, but that Congress could change the underlying law. So
now, whenever MLB does something that the Congresscritters don't
like, they at least threaten to apply antitrust law to the sport,
the same way it applies to football or any other pro league.
Kevin
Huh. I wouldn't have thought a decision like this would have come from the 9th Circuit. Very interesting.
Huh. I wouldn't have thought a decision like this would have
come from the 9th Circuit. Very interesting.
Ya see, a family's entertainment dollar can be spent on a baseball
game or a Hollywood blockbuster . . .
What doctor/patient privilege? Apparently, in a Congressional
hearing, you can't even assert lawyer/client privilege.
Communication between you and your lawyer is not privileged,
and your only redcourse, apparently, is to always plead the 5th,
which the public, of course, takes as being "guilty as
charged."
Actually the 9th is not big on privacy. See Kyllo v. United
States.
Sam,
I'm not sure I would support the Dr./patient application here
either. I would like to see the privacy respected out of "it's in
the interest of science", but just cause I want it don't mean
that's the way it oughta be. However I don't see how you could
argue that the player gave their samples to "facilitate committing
or getting away with a crime".
All communications should be privileged - what right does Congress have to hold hearings on any matter?
What about a blanket refusal to testify on 5th Amendment
grounds?
"I cannot be made to give evidence or testify in a case against
myself, I therefore will not participate."
disclosure: i think baseball players should be able to use AAS
(under Dr's supervision) for increased athletic
performance...
ok, now
the issue is that the data is AGGREGATE data. it's the same issue
with the searche engine case from a few months back
data is not being released that player X had Y in his
bloodstream
there is no particulars to identify individuals, merely pattern
data.
so, before people start whinging about Dr/Patient privilege, this
is not a case of Dr releasing information that player John Smith
had whatever in his bloodstream
personally, i think congress should have NO jurisdiction whatsoever
over what baseball players take into their bloodstream, anymore so
than any other private citizen, at least
in a Congressional hearing, you can't even assert
lawyer/client privilege.
Try telling that to Brendan Sullivan
However I don't see how you could argue that the player gave
their samples to "facilitate committing or getting away with a
crime".
If the confidentiality agreement hide evidence that a crime was
committed -- any evidence video, fingerprints, written admissions,
blood tests -- then it helps facilitate getting away with the crime
for obvious reasons.
you're back to the confidentiality agreement, not the privileged relationship where evidence may be hidden so long as the Doctor is not culpable.
States vary on whether there is a exception for crimes committed to physician patient confidentiality. i don't know the extent of physician patient confidentiality when one is brought up on federal charges, but I wouldn't be surprised if it is waived in cases of criminal evidence.
Timothy | December 28, 2006, 2:57pm | #
What about a blanket refusal to testify on 5th Amendment grounds?
"I cannot be made to give evidence or testify in a case against myself, I therefore will not participate."
Not a bad thought. Of course, if it is part of your employment
screening, or condition of employment it isn't a trial and
therefore not subject to the 5th.
"I was always confused about what the hell congress was doing
holding hearings regarding steroid use? Is it because baseball is a
NATIONAL past time?"
I should think it would be obvious- those hearings were held by the
Committee on Government Reform. Congressmen should be tested for
steroids on a regular basis.
I'm not sure on this but I think Baseball did not have a ban at
the time of use, nor do I think there was a law against it.
"""What about a blanket refusal to testify on 5th Amendment
grounds?
"I cannot be made to give evidence or testify in a case against
myself, I therefore will not participate.""""
Or what about I cannot be made to give evidence or testify about my
knowledge of someone else's involvement because to admit having
that knowledge without reporting it is a crime in its self.
I wonder if that would ever work.
"If the federal investigators are looking for evidence of a
crime, you can't hide evidence of that in a private
contract."
It's all irrelevant because you can't arrest someone for testing
positive for drugs, no matter how illegal they are. Having dope in
your system is not possession.
Having dope in your system is not possession
Unless you're a drug-war parolee who violates the terms of his
release. Test positive and you go right back. Do not pass go. Do
not collect your life.
It's all irrelevant because you can't arrest someone for
testing positive for drugs, no matter how illegal they are. Having
dope in your system is not possession.
Wasn't there a story a few months ago about underage kids being
charged with "possession" of the alcohol that was in their
systems?
Anyway, if they're investigating the sales of the steroids, they
could say that they were subpoenaing those who'd tested positive to
discover the source.
"""Having dope in your system is not possession
Unless you're a drug-war parolee who violates the terms of his
release. Test positive and you go right back. Do not pass go. Do
not collect your life.""""
A friend's kid was busted for underage possession of alcohol
because he was drunk. He had no alcohol with him at the time. But
that's Virgina for you. He didn't think it was worth the fight.
Kwix | December 28, 2006, 3:26pm | #
Timothy | December 28, 2006, 2:57pm | #
What about a blanket refusal to testify on 5th Amendment grounds?
"I cannot be made to give evidence or testify in a case against myself, I therefore will not participate."
Not a bad thought. Of course, if it is part of your employment screening, or condition of employment it isn't a trial and therefore not subject to the 5th.
Kwix: I was thinking specifically in the case of congressional
hearings. I actually don't really have a problem with employer drug
screening, provided they make the policy known up front.
Hey David, we were posting at the same time. My friend's kid was arrested 10 years ago or so.
Vic,
This is the story I was
thinking of. It was New Hampshire that had passed an "internal
possession" law. I think it would be pretty easy for the Gov't to
apply the same logic to steroid tests.
"If the federal investigators are looking for evidence of a
crime, you can't hide evidence of that in a private
contract."
It's all irrelevant because you can't arrest someone for testing
positive for drugs, no matter how illegal they are. Having dope in
your system is not possession.
That does not mean that the drug test is not evidence of a crime.
The evidence does not need to be co-extensive with the actus rea to
be considered as evidence.
FWIW, the panel opinion in this case was written by Judge O'Scannlain, a Reagan appointee. He was joined by Judge Tallman, who is technically a Clinton appointee but was actually chosen by Sen. Gorton (R-WA) as part of a deal Clinton struck to get one of his actual nominees through. Judge Thomas (no relation), the dissenter, is a for-real Clinton appointee.
laws vary from state to state. in some states, you can be
charged with a crime for having illegal drugs in your system. in
others, you can't. that addresses the virgina point above.
second of all, people do not have the right not give evidence
against themself...
"I cannot be made to give evidence or testify in a case against
myself, I therefore will not participate."
the 5th amendment refers to TESTIOMONIAL evidence only. in my
state, if you are involved in a serious injury mv accident, you can
(and will be) compelled to give a blood sample. no warrant is evne
required (due to exigency) and this statutory.
that';s because the 5th amendment does NOT apply to physical
evidence, it applies to testimonial evidence
this is a common misconception
also note that steroids are not illegal drugs per se . they are
Federal CIII drugs and ARE legal with a prescription btw. this is
to contrast with the above examples, whereas for example, it's
illegal to to be under the influence of heroin (C-I) or cocaine.
cocaine is technically C-II, but the only prescription use is as a
topical preparation for surgery.
also, most statutes reference "being under the influence" not
bodily possession. it is hard to argue "under the influence" for
drugs like AAS, which except for cheque drops etc. and other
extremely androgenic version, have little if any "influence" on
your behavior, in the way that psychotropics, hallucinogens,
narcotics, etc. do
And people roll their eyes when I comment that there is no hope.
[poster whit notes that:]also note that steroids are not
illegal drugs per se . they are Federal CIII drugs and ARE legal
with a prescription btw. this is to contrast with the above
examples, whereas for example, it's illegal to to be under the
influence of heroin (C-I) or cocaine. cocaine is technically C-II,
but the only prescription use is as a topical preparation for
surgery.
If the federal charges were use or possession of the steroid
without a valid, good faith prescription, then the drugs in the
system would serve as evidence of the possession element of the
crime. that is what I meant by that actus rea mumbo jumbo up
above.
sam, i am aware of that.
but the difference with AAS is that one would have to prove (for
criminal charges) that the person did not have a prescription. i
was just distinguishing between AAS and many other "recreational
drugs" in that they have legitimate medical use, and there are many
many many people with legit prescriptions for AAS
frankly, i think AAS makes the game of baseball more exciting (not
that it's hard to make baseball more exciting ) :)
but again, my point is that "under the influence" is a bit
different when you are talking AAS vs. a recreational drug, since
they are not (in any meaningful way) psychoactive. and don't even
get me started on so called "roid rage".
to my knowledge, there is no federal statute that has as
"possession" merely having the drug within one's system. there
COULD be such a law, but i am not aware of one
i am aware of SOME state laws that criminalize being under the
influence of certain illegal drugs in public.
whit. agreed. I was addressing Lamar, cuz we wuz havin' a side discush.
Nothing unusal about these tactics. Many years ago i was forced
to give a DNA sample for remains identification - even signed a
consent form in which I was assured that the sample would never be
entered into a criminal database or used as evidence.
Not more than a couple of years later all those protections were
overturned.
The evidence does not need to be co-extensive with the actus
rea to be considered as evidence.
It's "actus reus" and "mens rea." If you're going
to dazzle us with legal jargon, Sam, get it right.
Agammamon - the same thing happened here when they were looking
for a serial killer in Baton Rouge. They had a profile for a while
male driving a white P/U Truck. Thus they decided that any and all
people they had any reason to suspect be DNA swabbed and tested.
Needless to say none of those 500+ samples turned up as the killer
but all those men's DNA info is now stored in databases and they
are suing to get them removed. Many of these men gave samples in
good faith knowing they had no connection to the murders, others
were hesistant to give them samples for this very reason and some
had actual court orders to be tested or face jail time even with no
evidence what so ever they were the killer.
In the end a lab worker doing old DNA samples happened across a
sample from an older case and it matched the killers DNA and within
a few days he was arrested. Oh btw it was a black male and he never
had a white truck. Silly police assumed only white folks are serial
killers, damn stereotypes! This one kept them from solving it
sooner than later unfortunetly.
Bottom line is never give anything to anyone and promise nothing to
no one. Expect nothing from anyone and you will never be
disappointed.
If I am ever asked for a DNA sample I will have to claim my DNA is
copywrited material and I am only selling samples for
$500,000,000.00 a piece, after all where else can you get the same
DNA? lol
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