The Volokh Conspiracy
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Remember Noriega?
Why Maduro's Prosecution Can Continue Even if the US Violated International Law
For those old enough to remember, the arrest of Venezuelan strongman Nicolás Maduro this month resembles an event that took place 36 years ago to the date: the arrest of Panamanian strongman Manuel Noriega on January 3, 1990. Noriega had been indicted on drug charges in Florida; the U.S. captured him in Panama in a military operation and transferred him to the U.S. for trial.
I first encountered the Noriega case as a new lawyer at OLC, shortly after OLC had signed off on the legality of his seizure and transfer (I didn't work on the opinion itself, which was completed before I arrived). The debate over whether that operation was lawful never really went away—but Noriega's prosecution did go forward. His case looms large again in the controversy over the U.S.'s seizure of Maduro and Maduro's subsequent appearance in federal court in Manhattan.
Some of the legal questions are straightforward. The conduct alleged against Maduro—large-scale narcotics trafficking aimed at U.S. markets—fits comfortably within longstanding principles that allow a state to criminalize foreign conduct intended to have substantial domestic effects. And while sitting heads of state ordinarily enjoy immunity from foreign criminal prosecution, most states, including the U.S., do not recognize Maduro as Venezuela's legitimate leader.
In other respects, things get more complicated (if one treats international law as meaningfully constraining). Article 2(4) of the U.N. Charter prohibits the use of force in another state's territory, so a military operation to snatch a foreign leader looks like a violation of international law. But the U.S. takes a dualist approach to international law. On that view, international and domestic law operate on different—dual—planes. International obligations do not create rights enforceable in U.S. courts unless they are incorporated into U.S. law, for example through treaty language or statute.
Article 2(4) is almost universally regarded as non-self-executing, so U.S. courts would not treat an alleged breach as a basis to dismiss a criminal prosecution. Indeed, under United States v. Alvarez-Machain (1992), the illegality of a defendant's capture under international law would not, by itself, defeat U.S. criminal jurisdiction.
True, there are rule-of-law concerns when a president violates international law, even if U.S. courts would not enforce it. And there are legitimate questions about plunging the U.S. more deeply into Venezuelan politics. But U.S. courts generally—and properly—do not adjudicate those kinds of foreign-policy judgments. They leave them to the political branches, where they belong.
I have a longer analysis of these issues over at First Things.
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The trial will be in SDNY (?)
What is the under / over on about a third of the jury pool who would acquit solely because the case is prosecuted by DOJ during the Trump administration?
The cynic in me hopes for this. The political drama would be fascinating.
It wouldn’t play well in Peoria, it could become an issue in a lot of house races in rural conservative districts, places where the carnage of drug overdoses has been particularly noticeable.
You kinda know that Trump would make an issue of an acquittal, and if he’s one thing, it’s a good showman. He makes an issue for quite reform, maybe even school reform. Look at where the law schools are, and where they aren’t. How many are in solid red house districts? Enough said?
The more interesting question is what happens if he is acquitted. I don't see how the US can prevent his physical return to Venezuela at that point. And I'm not sure the US could legally prevent him from re-asserting his office as president, although I recognize the reality that the Trump administration would not likely care.
"what happens if he is acquitted"
Mysterious plane crash?
Can you *flyy*, Bobby?
Depending on how post-M Venezuela develops, sanctioning him if he had the temerity to step off the plane might be reasonable.
A newly-freed people are under no ethical obligation to be nice to someone actively warring against their freedom. And proven capable of doing so successfully at that.
That’s what voir dire is for.
"most states, including the U.S., do not recognize Maduro as Venezuela's legitimate leader" -- because they say his opponent won the election, but then they don't recognize the opponent as legitimate leader either, so how does this make sense?
In any case, there was no dispute that Maduro was the actual leader (in contrast, perhaps, to "legitimate" leader) of Venezuela. I don't think international law would accept that sovereign immunity can be ignored simply by the act of another country saying, "We personally don't accept him as legitimate." That way lies madness. There are lots of foreign leaders who were not legitimately elected.
Yeah, I was wondering about the possible implications of this idea for, say, Vladimir Putin, who, like Maduro, is in office because he cheats on elections.
I don't think international law would accept that sovereign immunity can be ignored simply by the act of another country saying, "We personally don't accept him as legitimate."
What is this "international law" of which you speak ? Is it in the federal constitution, or a federal law, or in a treaty ?
If it is merely "customary" international law, it's not on the list.
Recognition of dictators is a nicety for international relations (a peace that the dictators do not share but are happy to leverage.)
There are no actually legitimate dictatorships. They are all giant hostage situations. There is no "practicing self-determination". This asinine patter is often used by dictators and useful idiots (decidedly not in dictatorships) to philosophically disable good people from doing anything.
We say a leader is or isn’t legitimate because we find it convenient for us to say so, not because there’s some sort of external principle or rule involved.
Not legitimately elected is an excuse. It’s not like we’re about to claim that England and Denmark, or for that matter Saudi Arabia, aren’t legitimate states because their monarchs aren’t elected.
I don't necessarily disagree with the legal analysis on this, based on a few specific points:
* Treaty obligations generally do not convey trial rights unless provided for in the treaty.
* Fourth Amendment protections generally don't apply extraterritorially.
* Even if the Fourth Amendment did apply, dismissal of a case/vacating an arrest warrant is not a remedy (you can't suppress the body of the person being arrested, only the evidence found as a result of the arrest).
That being said, you reference an OLC opinion. Was the issue litigated by Noriega? Was there a court opinion? Was that decision appealed? I'd rather hear about that than what Office of Legal Counsel thinks.
For a much more fulsome and legal-y explainer, I recommend this-
https://www.lawfaremedia.org/article/inside-the-legal-battles-ahead-for-nicolas-maduro
Since no one here actually cares about the law, the TLDR; is this-
1. The Noriega case (and opinion) from the 11th Circuit is persuasive on several issues, but there are some factual distinctions that are worth paying attention to.
2. There are numerous legal defenses that can, and will, be raised by Maduro- some very good, and some very interesting (but not very good), such as the "stopover in Guantanamo" issue... which is fascinating, but not likely to go anywhere.
3. While Maduro has better facts (and law) than Noriega, it is still unlikely that he will prevail on these defenses. If I was a betting man, I'd bet against it. But it's not a slam dunk, either. I wouldn't be shocked if he prevailed. Call it 65/35 on the law. Maybe 90/10 from a legal realism POV.
Since no one here actually cares about the law, the TLDR
I appreciate the summary since you don't care about the law. 🙂
I notice some interesting quibbling going on.
There's a Ker-Frisbie Supreme Court precedent that kidnapping a defendant (from Peru in Ker and from another state in Frisbie) is no grounds to dismiss the case, because the kidnappers can be prosecuted for their crime.
It's at odds with criminal police acts which taint evidence, where the standard is to dismiss the evidence and not prosecute the misbehaving cops.
How convenient.
So, standard remedy when the police misbehave is to suppress evidence found as a result of the illegal act, not dismiss the case itself. For example, if they found incriminating evidence on Maduro, that would be excluded in a standard criminal case, but the prosecution could still prosecute if they had other evidence.
Yes, as I said, no mention of prosecuting the illegal search, the planting of evidence, etc etc etc, the opposite for Ker-Frisbie, where kidnapping is acceptable on the grounds that the kidnapping can be prosecuted.
I have major issues with Maduro being prosecuted in US courts. The US has no jurisdiction over Maduro. US laws do not apply to him, no anyone else not in the US.
Molly, this is a classic example in international law.
Saint Stephen, New Brunswick, Canada is across the Saint Croix River from Calais, Maine, USA. A German citizen standing on a wharf in Calais fire as a rifle across the river and kills an Italian citizen standing on a wharf in Saint Stephen. Which of the four countries has the right to try the perp for murder — the U.S., Canada, Germany, or Italy?
The answer is all four do.
Hence, which one does — and it comes down to the practical question of who has possession of the perp.
If a US citizen kills an Italian citizen in the US, Italy can't prosecute them.
That would be a question of Italian law.
Depends on the country. France could prosecute. Lots of countries prosecute extraterritorial sex crimes against minors and there's general agreement on punishment of war crimes.
That is not an accurate statement, for multiple reasons, including the fact that Maduro actually is in the U.S.
And as that link above says, Ker-Frisbie says kidnapping to get the defendant into the jurisdiction may be a prosecutable crime, but it doesn't lead to dismissal of the charges once the defendant is in the jurisdiction.
The real precedent here are the Noremberg trials.
Keeping it simple, let’s presume that Hitler did not commit suicide and that the Soviets did the summarily execute him upon capture. He would’ve been duly tried at Nuremberg and hung. And he was a sitting head of state, recognized as such by the world community at least during the 1936 Olympics.
It gets messy when you try to determine the extent of sovereign immunity of the underlings, who were tried and executed, but the principal largely was established, sovereign immunity is irrelevant. I’m not saying this is good or bad, and I can argue both sides of the issues to the Nuremberg trials raised, I’m only saying that if we’re gonna talk precedences, Nuremberg matters.
The Soviets summarily execute him on capture, and months, years later he is tried at Nuremberg and hung (I believe btw that the technical term is "hanged" - "hung" is what you do with a pheasant.)
Anyway, as you suggest, this could get very messy indeed. Yuck.
There is no such thing as a crime so heinous it cannot be prosecuted for reasons.
Back in 1990, I suggested Noriega be given asylum in Norway: "Noriega a Noruega!"
Whatever did happen to him?
They should have chucked him out of the plane over the Atlantic and said "Damn Bermuda Triangle!"
I bet Wikipedia knows.
Yep. Noriega spent 17 years in US jails (but entitled to a quality single cell as a prisoner of war), then was extradited to French and Panamanian jails. He died in 2017.
I think William Buckley justified the war (or quasi-war) with Nicarague, in defiance of the World Court, on these grounds:
1) The UN Security Council is responsible for enforcing World Court decisions, but
2) The United States has a veto in the Security Council
3) Game, set match!
So, let's define this Maduro business as a Security Council issue.
"In other respects, things get more complicated (if one treats international law as meaningfully constraining)."
Oh no! Is there a chance we'll be sent to international jail?
The machine gun charges are the ones that could spell trouble. He's only charged with possession, presumably in Venezuela, not smuggling, which at least has some connection to actually violating US laws in the US. Possessing a gun in Venezuela doesn't violate any US laws, yet he's charged with violating US laws.
That's some nasty precedent. What happens when some Democrat is elected and appoints judges who apply that same cross-border logic to Texans possessing guns which are illegal in California?
I agree that possessing a machine gun in Venezuela is not a violation of U.S. law. But if he acted in concert with others to cause the possession of an illegal machine gun on U.S. soil, then he is as guilty of possession as the person who did possess the machine gun.
The summaries in that link above says ...
Nothing to do with bringing guns into US jurisdiction, unlike the cocaine charges. If "furtherance ..." provides connection to the cocaine charges, then you also believe that if Maduro broke any US traffic laws while in Venezuela and in "furtherance ...", those too could be charged in the US. How far do you want to push this?
You are completely misreading the section. The statement that it is a machine gun possessed in furtherance of a drug trafficking crime requires upon conviction a mandatory minimum sentence of 30 years under a 924 (c) enhancement. That is the purpose of those words.
The possession must still be otherwise within the jurisdiction of the United States, not simple possession in Venezuela. If you read the other parts of the indictment it is alleged that the Venezuelan government traded machine guns and destructive devices to the group that it hired to import the drugs into the United States.
There is a clear jurisdictional hook there that you are missing.
There is no mention in the summary of the charges that the possession he is charged with occurs outside of Venezuela. That's my point. If other parts of the indictment do say that, then the indictment or the summary is a misleading mess.
I agree the Executive Branch has no obligation to follow international law unless Congress passes a law telling it to. And unless a treaty says so, it doesn’t convey individual rights.