The Volokh Conspiracy
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"Using History to Help Settle the Question of Presidential Tariff Powers" (Philip Zelikow)
My Hoover Institution colleague Philip Zelikow was kind enough to pass this along; he is an emeritus history professor at the University of Virginia, but also a lawyer:
As a lawyer and historian who also served in five administrations of both parties, including much involvement with wars and emergencies, it was interesting to read the clashing opinions of the Federal Circuit decision in the tariffs case, now before the Court. That clash was recently rehashed in the Executive Functions substack by Jack Goldsmith and Bob Bauer. I am on an amicus brief in that case, supporting the view that the presidential tariffs are unconstitutional. Like Goldsmith and Bauer, both sides in the appellate court pick at pieces of the history here, but miss much of the broader context. Understanding that history of how Congress has handled trade makes the case much clearer.
With tariffs, the need to balance domestic concerns and foreign affairs flexibility was already apparent when the Constitution was written and the tariff power was explicitly assigned to Congress. Also, the debate has missed the deep way in which the President's actions in April 2025 junked the entire tariff approach that both pro-tariff and anti-tariff sides in America had adopted more than a hundred years ago, an approach founded on the principles of reciprocity, equal treatment, and non-discrimination.
Understood in its historical context, IEEPA makes sense, especially in the context of the historic Trade Act of 1974 that complemented and substantially replaced the previous landmark Trade Expansion Act of 1962. Congress had covered all the bases, including concerns of balance of payments or national security worries about sectoral protection.
Once the history is understood, it seems obvious that Congress, in passing IEEPA in 1977, did not mean to empower a president to disregard it all, something no president—including Nixon in 1971—had done. This point carries over to those concerned about flexibility in foreign affairs, since—as in 1787—tariffs set at executive whim had the foreseeable danger, even more present today, of introducing impractical chaos into foreign affairs and the terms of trade even with America's friends.
Originalism
Tariffs or imposts or taxes on imported goods were a central feature of American political debate before and after the republic was founded. At the time the Constitution was written the United States had been wrestling over how to allocate such authorities. At the Founding, all understood the need to balance concerns about authority over foreign affairs with the authority to address the needs of American consumers and merchants. It was a difficult choice. The Founders chose, quite firmly and clearly, to assign that tariff power to Congress.
From 1787 to before the First World War, the usual pattern was that America had tariff rates determined by Congress. European countries had discriminatory trade policies. They had their empires and sometimes set imperial or colonial preferences in their tariff rates. They offered lower rates if you had a trade agreement with them. Congress set tariff rates and if the U.S. wanted a trade deal it negotiated a treaty on commerce and navigation with a country. That treaty had to be ratified by the Senate. A concession given to one country did not apply to any others. The old approach invited discrimination against American products.
In 1919 the Republicans were a pro-tariff party. The Democrats were against tariffs. Tariff issues were mainly matters of domestic policy. Democrats—especially in the rural South and West—wanted lower prices for goods and free trade for farm products. Republicans wanted industrial protection and more federal revenue. Leaders in both parties agreed, however, that the incoherent patchwork of tariff rates and country-by-country trade agreements had become unworkable for the advanced America of 1919.
Influenced by a landmark report of the bipartisan U.S. Tariff Commission, Democratic and Republican leaders, pro and anti-tariff, chose a new approach. The historian Douglas Irwin calls this 1919 report "one of the most influential government documents on trade since Alexander Hamilton's Report on Manufactures." (Irwin, 362) The argument was that, as a practical matter, the US could not realistically have a country-by-country trade policy anymore. Instead, the Commission argued, the US should pursue an approach of equality of treatment among nations.
"It can not be too much emphasized," the Commission wrote, "that any policy adopted by the United States should have for its object, on the one hand, the prevention of discrimination and the securing of equality of treatment for American commerce and for American citizens, and, on the other hand, the frank offer of the same equality of treatment to all countries that reciprocate in the same spirit and to the same effect. The United States should ask no special favors and should grant no special favors. It should exercise its powers and should impose its penalities, not for the purpose of securing discrimination in its favor, but to prevent discrimination to its disadvantage." (US Tariff Commission, 'Reciprocity and Commercial Treaties,' 1919, 18) "Most favored nation" status would mean reciprocal equal treatment, whatever the tariff rate set for one or another product.
Once they regained the Presidency and Congress in 1921, Republicans adopted the new approach in their tariff bills, especially the Fordney-McCumber tariff law of 1922. Section 317 of that law gave the president power to punish, with tariffs up to 50%, any country which refused equal treatment and discriminated against the United States. America's trading partners moved to accept this approach, which enshrined reciprocal unconditional "most favored nation" treatment. Trade partners might or might not have tariffs. But if there were tariffs, the tariffs were applied equally to all.
When the Republicans again raised tariffs in 1930, in the famous Smoot-Hawley law, section 338 of that bill reenacted the same section 317 penalty. Senator Reed Smoot (R-UT) had long been a major proponent of equal treatment. Anti-American trade discrimination faded. The tariff power to penalize discrimination was never used. Other statutes eventually covered specific worries about trade deficits, national security, and "unfair trade practices."
Tariffs target Americans—importers directly; other businesses and consumers indirectly. Taxation is not an area in which the President has independent constitutional authority of his own.
Sanctions, or embargoes, targeted foreigners. The distinction is crucial. Sanctions were, fundamentally, refusals to trade with threatening foreign governments. They empower the President where he has his own independent constitutional powers of national defense. Sanctions are quite explicitly discriminatory, singling out bad governments. Under the American approach adopted after 1919, tariffs did not discriminate. In contrast, a fundamental sanctions authority was the Trading with the Enemy Act (TWEA) of 1917 which granted a power to "regulate … importation" of foreign property, until IEEPA supplemented and partly replaced it in 1977, using the same language.
Pro-tariff Republicans, writing Fordney-McCumber in 1922 or Smoot-Hawley in 1930, would never have dreamed of arguing that they could just get their tariffs by asking their president to use the language of the 1917 TWEA. None of these leaders thought the Congress had already handed their constitutional power over tariffs to the president even though—in both those cases—the Republicans had a president in power from their own party and thought they were responding to economic emergencies that had partly foreign causes.
Crisis and Response in the 1970s
During the cold war the U.S. tended to enjoy favorable trade conditions as Europe and Asia recovered and grew. Sectoral concerns, like a desire to protect American manufacturing on national security grounds, was handled by Congress in section 232 of the cold war-era 1962 trade law. Jack Goldsmith originally made his arguments for broad interpretation of legislative grants of trade authority to the president mainly in this context, of defending the use of 232 authority in borderline cases where the real motives were more suspect. His arguments may be right—in that context.
By the beginning of the 1970s the favorable postwar conditions had changed, for reasons both domestic and foreign. U.S. policymakers faced what they regarded as a balance of payments crisis. This was a rather novel kind of problem that arose in the context of the Bretton Woods international financial system created at the end of the Second World War. It threatened a drain of gold reserves or rapid depreciation of the dollar.
There was no obvious congressional authority to empower a presidential response to this emergency. In August 1971 President Nixon abandoned the Bretton Woods system and placed a temporary surcharge on imports. His administration eventually claimed that TWEA gave them the authority for this. The surcharge ended four months later as the White House negotiated the first in a series of agreements to restore stability to the international financial system.
A key point to note is that Nixon's 1971 move, as radical as it was, was still non-discriminatory. All countries covered by the surcharge were treated alike. The principle of 'most favored nation' status remained good. The basic congressional approach to tariffs enshrined since 1922 remained intact. Meanwhile, in 1974, Nixon's surcharge was declared unconstitutional by the predecessor to the current Court of International Trade.
Responding to this crisis, Congress enacted the landmark Trade Act of 1974. It clarified authority on all the outstanding issues. The beginning of the Act laid out how presidents should do trade deals, which required congressional approval. Huge efforts were later expended to sometimes seek "fast track authority" to expedite that process. No one in those intense debates over grants of 'fast track authority' argued that they were really all wasting their time because (didn't they know?) presidents already had plenary tariff-setting emergency power in IEEPA.
The apparent gap in authority in 1971, the fear of sudden "balance of payments deficits," was closed with section 122 and with section 201 of that Trade Act. Both sections 122 and 201 were plainly meant to handle emergency situations. Section 122 was meant to deal with current account deficits or surpluses that messed with the value of the dollar. Section 201 was meant to deal with a situation where countries were trading fairly with us but we needed to deal with a sudden surge of imports.
If countries weren't trading fairly with us we have separate provisions for anti-dumping and countervailing duties (sections 1671-1677n of the 1930 law as amended), discriminatory barriers targeting American products (section 338 of the 1930 Act), or unfair trade practices (section 301 of the 1974 act, as amended).
All of this was in a general tariff system in which all U.S. tariffs, whatever their authority, were non-discriminatory, unless the country was unfairly trading with us in one of the specified ways.
The dissent in the Federal Circuit decision in the current tariffs case, by Judge Taranto, argued that section 122 did not address President Trump's national security claims about dangers to American manufacturing or agriculture. What Judge Taranto did not mention was that the Trade Act of 1974 did not need to address such sectoral concerns because they had been covered by the national security authorities already granted in section 232 of the 1962 act. Those are the authorities Professors Curtis Bradley and Goldsmith have defended, (on pages 1787-89, 1796-97) and where the evident congressional intent invites an interpretation of broader delegation as it combines with an area of independent presidential power. Those are the authorities President Trump has already used in sectors like steel and automobiles.
Those 232 authorities, and those tariffs, are limited and non-discriminatory, like all tariff authorities Congress has granted since 1922.
IEEPA Did Not Codify a Permanent State of Exception to Normal Tariff Authorities
In 1975 the appellate court that was the predecessor to today's Federal Circuit overturned the 1974 decision invalidating the Nixon surcharge. We should have a heart and extend some empathy to the appellate judges facing that case.
The August 1971 surcharge was long gone. It had ended in December of that year. The Nixon administration had faced a desperate balance of payments emergency and had not known where to find authority to take some temporary action. As time passed the administration came up with the idea of using the TWEA "regulate … importation" argument. The only issue in 1975 was whether to force the government to pay back the importers.
The appellate court chose to give the government a one-time pass. It reversed the district court and accepted the TWEA argument. It then tried to wall off this decision and make it clear the pass was for one time only. It noted how section 122 of the Trade Act had addressed the problem. The court told all future readers, in effect, "Don't, please don't, see our decision as granting broad tariff authority to the president." It stressed that it was not trying to amend the Constitution's grant of tariff authority to Congress.
The Trump administration, of course, now argues that the appellate court did all these things it said it was not doing. It is far more plausible to argue that, in 1977, Congress did not think it was doing any of these things because it thought the problem had been solved.
The Trade Act of 1974 had stitched up the remaining seams of explaining the scope of congressional authority to cut trade deals or do tariffs. The TWEA-style language could go back to what it had always done—empower sanctions against wicked foreigners.
Action against such foreigners was exactly the issue when the Supreme Court visited the IEEPA language in the Dames & Moore case in 1981. Different language was in play; IEEPA was used to freeze Iranian assets after American diplomats were taken hostage in 1979. The case arose when the U.S. negotiated the Algiers Accords to get the hostages back in exchange for putting the assets into a prolonged arbitral process. The plaintiffs had their own complaints against Iran and wanted a piece of the assets. The Court protected the government's right to do its deal, while also stressing the case should not be used as a precedent.
Nothing has indicated that IEEPA was meant even to allow future temporary surcharges of the kind the Nixon administration had employed in 1971. Congress has covered how to do trade deals, how to protect sectors of national security importance, and how to handle balance of payments emergencies.
The issue in the tariffs case is far larger. Taxation of Americans is not an area where there is independent presidential constitutional authority. His actions also go against generations of manifest congressional intent. By decree, President Trump has entirely overthrown the trade policy of 'equal treatment' and non-discrimination that set up the whole structure of U.S. trade law and 'most favored nation' status that emerged from the bipartisan compromises laboriously enacted between 1919 and 1922 and have been followed ever since.
Even if Congress had noticed or approved of the appellate court decision in 1975 on Nixon's surcharge, it is hard to infer that it thought IEEPA could be used to overthrow the whole tariff system, a structure that had coexisted with the earlier TWEA, and allow the president to set up his own taxation and revenue system. This is a prime situation where the major questions doctrine would seem to limit presidential overreach.
On his own authority President Trump has returned the United States to the patchwork that prevailed before the First World War, the patchwork that seemed unworkable in 1919. But he has done so with a singular difference. Before 1919, the problem was the difficulty in making trade agreements because all the presidents obeyed the Constitution. Congress set tariff rates and ratified trade treaties. Now, the chaos is compounded by the disregard of any meaningful governing authority, constitutional or statutory.
This approach would have appalled past pro-tariff Republicans. Tethered only to one man's whims, this approach to tariffs and taxes will probably also be found to violate the Constitution. Thus, compounding the chaos, the U.S. government is likely to be required to refund to Americans, with interest, the tens of billions of dollars already collected under the unlawful use of emergency powers—a liability that grows by hundreds of millions of dollars every day that system stays in place. Meanwhile the administration invites a whole new era of uncertainty and discrimination against American products, as countries compensate with new kinds of trade arrangements.
The President should make his tariffs case to Congress and the American people. Regardless of what they decide, they should heed the lessons that even the advocates of tariffs had drawn from their experience in a growing world economy of the late 19th and early 20th centuries. If tariffs are to be good policy, they should be practical, predictable, and retain the principle of equal treatment.
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....thank you for passing that along. It was an excellent read.
I mean, it just adds to my growing frustration with ... everything going on. Two months ago, I assured someone that we would make decisions depending on how the midterms were carried out.
I had to amend that and move it forward. Now, it's tariffs argument. If the Supreme Court screws up as simple of an issue as that, it's the signal that there are no longer any meaningful guardrails. Because that's something that even THIS SCOTUS should stop easily.
This seems rather confused. Prof Zelikow concedes that the statute book does contain laws permitting non uniform tariffs :
If countries weren't trading fairly with us we have separate provisions for anti-dumping and countervailing duties (sections 1671-1677n of the 1930 law as amended), discriminatory barriers targeting American products (section 338 of the 1930 Act), or unfair trade practices (section 301 of the 1974 act, as amended).
All of this was in a general tariff system in which all U.S. tariffs, whatever their authority, were non-discriminatory, unless the country was unfairly trading with us in one of the specified ways.
And yet he says the Trump tariffs are "unconstitutional" because they are not uniform.
He might have a better argument that Trump's tariffs are beyond any power delegated to the executive branch by statute. Or that they are unconstitutional because Congress does not have the power to delegate its duty-levying power. Non uniformity seems irrelevant - unless the Prof is saying - under his breath - that the anti-dumping and countervailing duties laws are themselves unconstitutional.
There's also a mysterious heading in there - "Originalism"
It's not clear what this heading is intended to convey. Article 1 mentions Congress's powers to levy duties, which originalist scholarship would undoubtedly conclude covers tariffs. But so would current linguistic scholarship. That tariffs are a type of duty is true in 21st century English just as much as in 18th century English. Originalism doesn't add anything here. The constitution clearly hands the tariff power to Congress. The constititutional question is whether the Congress can, or cannot, delegate a slice of that power to the discretion of the President. It's the same question that arises with Congress delegating to executive branch agencies the power to make regulations.
Then we get a bit about the 1970s. Originalism is not irrelevant here in that it applies to statute just as much as to the constitution. So the relevance of originalism to the IEEPA is whether tariffs were included within the meaning of regulation, in 1977. But the Prof didn't offer us an argument on that one.
I'm sure the guy is positively dripping with historical knowledge. But his argument seems confused.
Glaringly missing from the history of tariffs in the article is the historical context of the passage of IEEPA in 1977, a history of the Carter administration's implementation of the IEEPA, or a history of the legislation since 1977.
Oh goodie! It's our substance-free friend!
So, here we go. Explain to us in detail, in your own words, the exact "historical context" that we are missing- feel free to include relevant statutory text.
And please include the history of the legislation since 1977, and your take as to the specific relevance as to the meaning in light of what has already been discussed.
WE WILL WAIT!
U.S. Tariff Commission, Summary of the Report on Reciprocity and Commercial Treaties 12 (1919).
Doesn't sound like a group overly concerned with giving the President too much discretion in tariff matters.
It is far more plausible to argue that, in 1977, Congress did not think it was doing any of these things because it thought the problem had been solved.
Here, rather than the word "plausible", the word "ridiculous" would be more appropriate. To recapitulate, in 1971, President Nixon declares an emergency and imposes an additional 10% tariff on all imports. The Court of Customs and Patent Appeals upholds the President's actions in United States v. Yoshida International Corp. (1975), stating he had the authority under his delegated power to "regulate... importation" under the Trading with the Enemy Act. Two years later, limiting the TWEA to wartime, Congress adopts the IEEPA, using identical "regulate... importation" language. Why would Congress, fully cognizant of the holding in Yoshida, use identical language, rather than explicitly limit the President's authority? The most "plausible" explanation is that Congress had no intention to so limit the President and used the same words in different statutes to mean the same thing.
Now, it can certainly be argued that Trump, in this case, went beyond what was permitted in Yoshida, but it is not credible to argue that Congress used the same words, words that now had the imprimatur of judicial interpretation, in a successor statute to mean different things.
Primarily because I don't think you actually believe what you're writing?
In other words, I think the above essay answers your questions. I also think that the actual text of Yoshida (not, as you keep saying, the "holding") does a good job as well.
But let's put that aside and concentrate on a very simple issue-
1. Do you think that the President has the unilateral ability to set all tariffs, at all times, on all countries, at his sole discretion for any reasons he chooses to by simply using magic words (IEEPA). More importantly, as conceded in the briefs, is this something that can be done simply for "leverage"?
2. If your answer is to (1) is "yes," do you think that this is constitutional? In other words, could a similar provision allow the President to unilaterally set domestic tax rates however he wanted? Why or why not?
Let's be clear what's going on, and what these arguments actually entail based on the cases we have currently going.
A. Trump is arguing that he has the ability to set any and all tariffs unilaterally- in effect, making it an Article I power, because of this specific legislation. Which ... okay.
B. Trump is also arguing that he has the inherent ability of impoundment- in other words, that he doesn't have to spend what Congress has specifically appropriated (that's another case going up).
C. Trump is also arguing that he has the ability to move funds around.
D. Trump is arguing that he should have the ability to fully control the Fed (monetary policy).
A-D would provide Trump full control of the Fiscal and Monetary policy of the United States, at his discretion.
Don't forget that Trump and Bondi have also claimed that Trump has the ability to unilaterally suspend laws passed by Congress.
I could keep going, but I think even you understand what the combination of all of this means.
Yeah, Trump's a dictator. We get it, Bluesky. You'll pardon me if I don't address your litany of complaints on impoundment, the Fed, etc., as they seem rather far afield from the topic at hand.
But, yes, I hold the position, inconceivable to the anti-Trump hysterics, that some of the legal arguments on his side may have some merit, and that legal arguments on the other side may have merit as well. I thought both the majority and dissent in V.O.S. Selections were well written (though I didn't think much of the concurrence). I don't think the dissent in the 7-4 case, written by Judge Taranto, an Obama appointee, was just MAGA craziness or obeisance to Trump.
If you don't seem to understand (and I actually would have credited you more than that) why the other cases I mentioned, all of them pending (or soon to be pending) are relevant, or why I asked the specific questions I did, then I can't help you.
That said, I don't bother engaging with people who label other as "Bluesky." Again, always appreciate when people help me with the signal to noise ratio.
Perhaps you might start by considering two fundamental questions.
1. Can Congress constitutionally delegate its ability to set (raise or lower) tariffs to the executive branch? (Or is such delegation of tariff authority unconstitutional).
2. Has Congress delegated that authority?
Don't forget that he has never actually read Yoshida, because the court there said that Nixon could only do that because those tariffs were very limited. (I still think it's wrong, tbc, but far less wrong than Wolf.)
50 U.S. Code Chapter 35 - INTERNATIONAL EMERGENCY ECONOMIC POWERS seems to be a stop/go sanctions tool, not a tariff code. § 1702 lists 'regulate' as an authority but I do not see how that equals tariff when it sits next to words like: block, prohibit, nullify, void, and prevent.
Congress even carved out “informational materials” in § 1702(b)(3) to avoid censorship.
https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/50/1702
"I do not see how that equals tariff when it sits next to words like: block, prohibit, nullify, void, and prevent."
1. I don't believe anyone has suggested that "regulate" equals"tariff.' The argument is that "regulate" includes tariff.
2. How do the other words persuade you that "tariff" is not included in "regulate?" It is true that all the other words betoken an absolute barrier, rather than a partial impediment. But "regulate" betokens precisely that - a partial impediment. So you can't say that tariffs are out of sync with the rest of the list on the grounds that they are merely stemmers of the flow of imports, rather than absolute barriers. Because that's precisely what "regulate" is doing.
The main point that arises from the list of other powers constituting absolute barriers is that - whatever other arguments might be made against "regulate" including "tariffs", the Major Questions Doctrine is a complete non starter. Taxing imports that are allowed to pass into the United States is self evidently a rather minor power, compared to completely "block[ing}, prohibit[ing], nullify[ing], void[ing], and prevent[ing] imports from passing into the United States at all.
Each of those other verbs — block, prohibit, nullify, prevent — are commerce-regulation tools. Reading “regulate” as “tariff” would be the odd one out, since tariffs belong to Congress’s taxing power, not to stop/go trade controls. And Congress had just written explicit tariff tools into the 1974 Trade Act (§122 for balance-of-payments emergencies, §201 for safeguard actions). If IEEPA’s “regulate” already covered tariffs, those sections would be redundant. The more natural reading is that IEEPA gives embargo authority, while tariff power stays where the Constitution put it: in Congress.
And importantly, IEEPA only triggers in cases of an “unusual and extraordinary threat.” For ordinary trade disruptions or economic concerns, Congress already provided tools — but they require political work. IEEPA wasn’t meant as a shortcut around that.
If anything this has me reading statutes. Lol
"And importantly, IEEPA only triggers in cases of an “unusual and extraordinary threat."
As of January 15, 2024, Presidents had declared 69 national emergencies invoking IEEPA, 39 of which are ongoing. History shows that national emergencies invoking IEEPA often last nearly a decade, although some have lasted significantly longer—the first state of emergency declared under the NEA and IEEPA, which was declared in response to the taking of U.S. embassy staff as hostages by Iran in 1979, is in its fifth decade.
Here's a nice reference.
If the IEEPA only triggers in "unusual and extraordinary threat" situations, which of these 69 instances didn't fit the bill? And who determines that?
https://www.congress.gov/crs-product/R45618
Thanks for the link, Armchair. From what I can tell it’s really just a proclamation under the NEA — the President declares, Congress gets notified, and unless Congress actively pushes back, the “emergency” just keeps rolling forward year after year.
I would suggest that as general rule, emergency powers for the executive ought to only last until the legislature has a chance to consider them. Without legislative confirmation, the emergency powers end.
That’s the kicker — Congress does review them, but then just rubber-stamps renewals over and over. What was supposed to be a stopgap turns into a semi-permanent delegation by neglect.
It’s wild, isn’t it? The first IEEPA emergency in 1979 was supposed to be a tarp over a hole in the roof — temporary cover while Congress figured out how to fix it. Instead, the tarp just gets replaced year after year, until half a century later we’ve normalized governing by “temporary” emergency. Congress never patches the roof because the tarp is too convenient.
Each of those other verbs — block, prohibit, nullify, prevent — are commerce-regulation tools. Reading “regulate” as “tariff” would be the odd one out, since tariffs belong to Congress’s taxing power, not to stop/go trade controls.
This does not strike me as a strong point. Can Congress not appropriate $1 billion each to the Army and the Navy for ammunition, in a single clause, because Congress's Army power and Congress's Navy power appear on different lines of Section 8 ?
And "regulate" is not a stop/go trade control. A trade regulation can require inspections, require imports to be carried in US ships, provide for a period of quarantine - all sorts of things that specify how imports may be imported rather than whether they may be imported. "Regulate" includes quotas which reduce, but do not stop imports of whatever the quota relates to.
If IEEPA’s “regulate” already covered tariffs, those sections would be redundant.
Your time machine is faulty. IEEPA came after the 1974 Trade Act. And, as you note, the triggering conditions for the two Acts are different. An Act imposing a 10 year prison term for armed robbery is not redundant because a previous Act imposed a 10 year prison term for fraud.
Let us return to the Obamacare case, where The Chief Justice determined that the mandate penalty was a "tax" even though Congress had not chosen to mention that it was. Nobody disputed that the purpose of the mandate penalty was regulatory - it was intended to force people to buy health insurance. And no Justice - or anyone else - disputed that Congress could have written the mandate penalty explicitly as a tax.
All over the world governments load heavy taxes on tobacco, alcohol, gas so as to discourage consumption. Everyone knows that taxes can regulate.
Nobody would read "regulate" as excluding tariffs if they were writing an essay about Byzantine trade policy. It would be laughable. It is only "controversial" in the IEEPA case, because it matters politically.
What really jumps out to me is the revenue piece. When Congress writes tariff laws, it ties them to revenue. The Tariff Act of 1930 says duties shall be “levied, collected, and paid.” The Trade Act of 1974 says any temporary surcharges “shall be collected as duties under the Tariff Act of 1930.” In both cases, Customs collects and Treasury accounts for the revenue. IEEPA, by contrast, never mentions collection or revenue at all. Its only reporting requirement is that the President notify Congress of the emergency, describe the actions taken, and give updates every six months. That makes sense if it’s meant as a stop/go embargo tool — but it’s hard to see how that reads as a tariff delegation.
There are a few key questions that need to be answered.
1. Can Congress constitutionally delegate its tariff authority to the executive branch?
2. If it cannot constitutionally delegate that authority, what does that mean for the vast number of tariffs that have been set by this administration and previous administrations?
3. If Congress CAN constitutionally delegate its tariff authority, has it done so?
4. What measure can Congress take under current law to disapprove of any actions the executive branch has done with the delegated authority?
1. No.
2. That those tariffs were unconstitutional.
3. In some limited ways, perhaps, but not under IEEPA.
4. Impeach Trump. Pass a law expressly eliminating those actions (and override the certainly forthcoming veto). Maybe sue him.
That's a pretty extreme interpretation then David.
The Last tariffs that Congress actually set by law were the Smoot-Hawley Tariffs.
Everything after that, in some way, has gone through the executive branch.
I don’t see calling delegation unconstitutional as “extreme.” If you handed someone the Constitution itself — without all the doctrines layered on later — the plain structure gives all legislative power to Congress. It’s only once you add the extra scaffolding that delegation looks normal.
Personally, I call doctrines like delegation and plenary power extraconstitutional rather than unconstitutional. “Unconstitutional” makes people hear “illegal.” Extraconstitutional better fits what’s going on: practices outside the text and outside the amendment process, but accepted as ways of modifying the framework.
Doesn't seem particularly extreme to me - though it will for those comfortable with the "we've been doing it since the year dot so we'll pretend it's constitutional" approach. Maybe we should thank Trump for alerting us to this long forgotten constitutional principle. Which would seem to apply equally to all delegation of regulation making authority to anywhere in the executive branch or "independent" agencies.
I'm struggling somewhat with Mr Nieporent's answer to Qu 3. On the basis that he's already answered "No" to Qu 1. If his answer to Qu.3 is based on a stipulation that the answer to Qu. 1 is "Yes" - where does any limit come from ?
As to Qu 4 does Congress need to take any action ? If the tariffs are unconstitutional, and the courts do their job, then any tariffs will be repaid and future Presidential tariff demands will simply be ignored.