The Volokh Conspiracy
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Journal of Free Speech Law: "Adding Injury to Insult: Kant on Defaming the Dead," by Prof. David Sussman
An article from the Defamation: Philosophical and Legal Perspectives symposium, sponsored by the Center for Legal Philosophy at UC Irvine.
The article is here; here are the introductory paragraphs:
In a brief and largely overlooked section of the Doctrine of Right, Kant considers the right a person has to retain a good reputation after their death, the acquisition of which he calls "a phenomenon as strange as it is undeniable." Kant here is not claiming that one should never speak ill of the dead, at least if one is speaking truthfully (although Kant does count it "a duty of virtue not to take malicious pleasure in exposing the faults of others"). Rather, Kant's concern is with posthumous defamation: the telling of lies that in some way "stains" the name of the deceased. Kant explains that when such a right is violated, those still alive acquire an obligation to restore the reputation of the dead. This obligation apparently falls on everyone regardless of their relation to the deceased: "[A]n apologist need not prove his authorization to play the role of apologist for the dead, for everyone inevitably arrogates this to himself as belonging … to the right of humanity as such."
Although Kant has no doubt that there really is such a right against posthumous defamation, he is very puzzled by it, admitting that "It is therefore indisputable that there is a basis for such an ideal acquisition for someone's right after his death against those who survive him, even though no deduction of its possibility can be given" (emphasis added). Kant's perplexity is understandable. He considers the right to a good reputation to be part of "private right," concerning "what is externally mine or yours" such as property, contractually obligated performances, and the peculiar category of "domestic right" that heads of households supposedly have with respect to their spouses, their children, and their domestic servants. The violation of private right involves the wrongful infliction of harm or loss in a way that would normally call for at least some sort of compensation from the party responsible. So understood, this right immediately raises the question of whether, and in what ways, the dead can be harmed or deprived of something, and more broadly how the dead can still have interests that merit legal protection.
Whether the dead can still be harmed or helped is a long-standing philosophical question going back at least to Aristotle (who answers both in the affirmative). If the only things intrinsically good or bad for a person are their experiences (or aspects of experience, like pleasure), then death clearly puts a person beyond all injury (assuming, as Kant does, that death is complete annihilation). If we understand a person's good to involve not just experience but the objects of what they desire or otherwise care about, there remains what to make of those desires once the subject of those desires is no more. If I no longer exist after I die, just who could it be that could be benefited by the satisfaction of the desires that I developed when I was alive?
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This raises the question of defaming people because the ethical views of their actions have changed over time.
For example, consider people who fought for or lived in the former Confederacy. Up to a few years ago, they were generally considered as misguided but honorable people who should be welcomed back into American society. Now, they and their descendants are reviled, the monuments to their dead defiled or destroyed, and they are hated by a good percentage of the population - people who don’t know them personally at all. (Talking about you, Kirkland)
I'd say the key question is why are views changing?
Do we have a better understanding of the previous events?
Are the current descendants trying to revive the "misguided" policies or ideals?
Is there a concerted propaganda campaign based on current political goals?
That there may be doesn't mean that the goal is inherently wrong. The Confederacy was a loathsome entity, and deserves all the opprobrium heaped upon it and all the veneration trashed.
Is there a concerted propaganda campaign based on current political goals?
Well, there was certainly a long-standing, very effective, propaganda campaign minimizing the evils of slavery, glorifying the Confederates, treating Reconstruction as a catastrophe, etc. And that campaign , which spread broadly throughout. the South, definitely had political objectives.
So if you want to criticize propaganda campaigns start with that one, which made it its business to spread a lot of lies that more recent historians have refuted. Should those more recent scholars have let the falsehoods stand?
"Is there a concerted propaganda campaign based on current political goals?"
Um...yes and yes and yes and yes and yes and . . . .
From the lefties and the righties (are RINOs a subset?), and the wealthy and the Chinese and every special interest group, Silcon Valley, Wall St, ranchers, farmers, fishermen, etc., etc.
BTW, that's a GOOD thing.
Well, in the example Jerry cites, our understanding of the facts and the people has not changed one whit. (And precisely noone is trying to "revive" slavery.) The only thing that's changed is a loss on the side of the 'winners' in any sense of the value of reconciliation.
Some people make mistakes or even act evilly. I do not believe that puts them forever beyond reach of redemption or understanding. My belief used to be common. It is now apparently in the minority.
I do not believe that puts them forever beyond reach of redemption or understanding.
Indeed, but neither should they be praised or defended, or used as paradigms of virtue.
When do you think it will be ok to rehabilitate the Nazis?
Redemption=/=celebrating.
Redemption requires acknowledgement and repentance first.
I think you overstate matters. They were welcomed back, on fairly generous terms, as I recall.
The difficulty, for me, is that this involved whitewashing their past and even glorifying their actions. It is one thing to accept the criminal back after his release, to offer redemption. It is another to make a noble hero out of him, and especially his leaders.
And of course they tried to use this false glorification to defend continued evil practices.
And another point. Who exactly has the right to offer redemption after the war? White northerners? How so? I’d say it’s the former slaves, and their descendants, and their voices were not heard on the matter.
(this intended as a reply to Rossami)
"Misguided?" I guess that's one take on those who took up arms to commit treason in the defense of slavery.
I struggle to get ostensible libertarians who get irate and engage in strong hyperbole over something like Wickard or Kelo but think the white supremacy-based mass slavery, rape and beatings that the Confederacy was defending via armed treason was just "misguided."
A real pissant who was very rarely stable.
Aristotle
Aristotle was a bugger for the bottle
Is this preperatory work should one or the other candidate croak in the next few months (or 5 years)?
"how the dead can still have interests that merit legal protection."
Or even if they do, how could/should they be vindicated (who would bring such an action)?
FWIW it is Catholic teaching that it is the sin of detraction to speak ill of someone such that his reputation is harmed, even if true, without good reason. Not aware of the teaching’s application to the dead though.
Judaism has a similar teaching, the doctrine of lashon hara. Derogatory speech about someone is forbidden, except to protect from a greater harm. (For example, if someone is considering going into business with a dishonest person, you can warn him.) (Defamation — false derogatory speech — is always forbidden, of course.) It also applies to the deceased.
Thanks to you and Mike for this information, learned something today.
An interesting essay on an unexpected line for Kant to take. I recalled while reading it, however, a case that had come up in some old research, which may interest you, Prof. Volokh, and our lawyer friends—a 1974 case in Italy, in which the Countess Pacelli Rossignani brought criminal charges against Robert Katz for defaming her dead uncle, Pope Pius XII.
I love this case, as nearly every element is impossible in U.S. law:
1) The case was a private suit charging criminal acts of defamation, brought by an individual instead of the state.
2) The defamation was against a dead man, in the name of the family's right to defend his historical reputation.
3) Katz was found guilty in the trial, which was overturned on appeal for procedural reasons. But then he was retried—sua sponte and ab initio, using only the transcript of the trial—by that appeals court, which found him guilty again.
4) Katz was let off of this second guilty verdict on a second appeal, on the grounds that his offense was covered by one of the periodic general amnesties that Italy issues to clear court dockets and the prisons.
5) But Katz was nonetheless denounced by that second appeals court, which, even while releasing him from the judgment, ordered him to pay the countess's legal bills.
Is there a non-paywalled link to this? Sounds like interesting reading. 🙂
What was the nature of the defamation? (Bet I can guess.)
Is truth a defense in Italy?
Katz wrote that Pius was complicit in the Ardeatine Caves incident. The claim that he tipped off the Germans about where Jews were hiding was always one of the more dubious of the claims against Pius, but it had brief vogue. As far as I know (not a lawyer, much less an Italian lawyer), truth is not a complete defense against slander and libel charges.
Since I was under the impression that polite, yet still incisive, discussion was beyond the ken of Volokh Conspirators, this is a surprisingly nice breath of fresh air. Here's to the hope that it's not our last.
How was the Covid spread that killed Herman Cain when everyone was masking at the time?? Because Trump’s and Melania’s KFC farts spread Covid!! Fauci is to blame for not promoting masks for our buttholes!!! Stinky and deadly!!
Suppose that in my will, I leave a large sum of money to the city to build a library, and stipulate that the library is to be named after me. After my death, the city happily accepts the money, but declines to put my name on the library. Could we make a case that I've been harmed? On the one hand, I no longer exist, or at least am presumably enjoying eternal bliss or torment, which wouldn't in any degree be lessened or mitigated by the name on a library. On the other, had I known while living that my wishes in the matter wouldn't be respected, I might've done something else with the money that would've increased my happiness while alive.
For that matter, how does the law treat a situation in which someone's defamed while living, but dies before the case can wind its way through the courts? For an extreme case, let's suppose that a newspaper knowingly publishes a false and highly scurrilous story about me. The paper hits the stands throughout the city early one morning, but an hour or two later, while I'm still unaware of the article's existence, I choke to death on my breakfast bacon. Can my estate seek damages, on the grounds that the libel was published during my life, even though it had no effect on me during my lifetime?
The most famous case I know of (in the US) involving defaming the dead is the Paul Haffer case in 1916 – the young socialist called the late George Washington an “owner and exploiter of negro slaves. … a profane and blasphemous man and an inveterate drinker.” As punishment for such remarks: four months in prison under Washington state’s particularly strict anti-dead-defamation law.
Despite this notorious incident, “Haffer is now best known as the husband, for a few years, of pioneering modernist photographer Virna Haffer (1899-1974).”
https://www.historylink.org/File/11241