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The Two Edges of Tradition: "Adverse Possession" and "Use It Or Lose It"
If the government exercises a power it lacks for a long time, it can keep exercising that power. But if a government does not exercise a power it has, it loses that power.
From an originalist perspective, NLRB v. Noel Canning was one of the worst separation of powers decisions in recent memory. The text of the Recess Appointments Clause clearly refers to "the recess of the Senate"--a single break between sessions. But Justice Breyer's majority opinion found that text "ambiguous," and then relied on historical practice--what we might now call "tradition"--to find that intrasession recess appointments were permissible. In short, many Presidents had made these types of appointments, and Congress had not meaningfully object to this practice, therefore the practice is constitutional.
Justice Scalia wrote a concurrence, which really read more like a dissent. He accused Justice Breyer of misreading the historical record, as intrasession recess appointments were the subject "of a long simmering interbranch conflict." But Scalia further criticized Breyer's methodology as akin to "adverse possession." That is, if the executive branch continuously exercises some power that it lacks, it can keep exercising that power.
As someone who teaches both Property and ConLaw, Scalia's argument about adverse possession has always resonated with me: if the government acts unlawfully for a long time, why should it be rewarded by being able to keep acting unlawfully? We tolerate squatter rights in the land use context, in part, to conclusively settle disputes and put property to the highest use. But the Constitution is not an abandoned lot or a fallow farm.
There is a flip-side to the "adverse possession" theory of the separation of powers. Justice Barrett articulated it in her Rahimi concurrence. She rejected a theory of originalism that "assumes that founding-era legislatures maximally exercised their power to regulate, thereby adopting a 'use it or lose it' view of legislative authority." Such a theory assumes that if some government did not exercise a power, that is evidence that the government lacks such a power, and future courts can prevent the government from exercising that power. It could also be that the government simply exercised discretion, and chose not to use that power. Barrett limited her point here to founding-era legislatures, but I think that dynamic would extend to post-enactment tradition.
Let's use an easy, and familiar example. In the 1860s, some states regulated abortions. (There were tiresome debates about how to count those states, which I'll table for now). Dobbs found that the fact that some states regulated abortion is proof that abortion was not considered a fundamental right when the 14th Amendment was ratified. I think that argument is correct as far as it goes. But imagine a counterfactual. Let's say states did not regulate abortion at the time. Perhaps they did not have much evidence that there was a problem with abortion, or perhaps the legislature chose to focus on other items. Would that lack of regulation suggest that states in fact did not have the power to prohibit abortions? Is this some sort of use-it-or-lose-it power? Would the lack of regulation in fact suggestion that abortion was a fundamental right? Wouldn't the better answer simply look to whether "abortion" was considered "liberty," or discussed as a right, when the Fourteenth Amendment was ratified? Why work backwards from laws that were, or were not passed?
I realize Glucksberg asks for a tradition of regulation to define rights. That is not an originalist framework. But I think it is also not originalist to look to a tradition to non-regulation to define government power. So much turns on gleaning unstated intentions from unenacted legislation by long-dead legislators. How is any of this originalism?
I see the "adverse possession" and "use it or lose it" theories as two edges of traditionalism. If the government exercises a power it lacks for a long time, it can keep exercising that power. But if a government does not exercise a power it has, it loses that power.
I still need to chew this through. Again, Justice Barrett's short concurrence raised a lot of food for thought.
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Prof. Leah Litman has produced some interesting scholarship on this issue, e.g.: https://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=2843763
It strikes me that the history & tradition approach detailed in Bruen commits this fundamental error of assuming maximal legislative regulation.
You have now hit on the fundamental problem with Bruen. And any other “historical analogy” test.
"There is a flip-side to the "adverse possession" theory of the separation of powers. Justice Barrett articulated it in her Rahimi concurrence. She rejected a theory of originalism that "assumes that founding-era legislatures maximally exercised their power to regulate, thereby adopting a 'use it or lose it' view of legislative authority." Such a theory assumes that if some government did not exercise a power, that is evidence that the government lacks such a power, and future courts can prevent the government from exercising that power. It could also be that the government simply exercised discretion, and chose not to use that power. Barrett limited her point here to founding-era legislatures, but I think that dynamic would extend to post-enactment tradition."
The problem with Barrett's approach here, is that in the case of the 2nd amendment, we have an actual constitutional prohibition against exercising the power in question, and the historical examples are cited in order to create exceptions to the actual rule in the text. She'd grant exceptions that have no evidentiary basis, to a rule that has a solid textual basis!
Is that any different from the situation with other rights, such as in 1A, 4A, &c.? the lack of exercise of an exception power in the past does not mean that power doesn’t exist, just that it’s not been attempted before. It makes sense that exceptions long exercised suggest a presumption of constitutionality, but no sense that exceptions not attempted a presumed unconstitutional (obviously it’s different for attempted exercise of exceptions that failed or were smacked down).
It's not different from other rights, but I dispute your analysis.
You start out with a textual rule saying that the government can't/must do X. It's generally pretty absolute; Congress shall make "no" law, "shall not be infringed", "In all criminal prosecutions".
The government doesn't WANT to ALWAYS do or refrain from X. (Who does want to be subject to strict rules without exceptions?)
So the Court, whose members are chosen on the basis of an expectation that they'll be deferential to the federal government, obliges: "If you can show that doing/refraining from X was considered acceptable right after the amendment was adopted, we'll let you do it today, even though it runs contrary to the actual text."
So, examples of past practice suggest a presumption that there is an exception merited. Lack of attempts at practice?
They provide you with no basis at all for extending an exception. Heck, it would be more reasonable to say, "No, doing X under this circumstance was viewed as so beyond the pale they never even tried to do it."
So, no laws may regulate speech, press, or 2A right in any respect, to any degree, whatsoever?
So, you're a moron who can't read?
Seriously, I ask a very reasonable question, and you immediately go with personal attacks? If it makes you feel better, then, yes, I’m a moron who can’t read…
Yet, I repeat my question, is that your position? The history of American jurisprudence on those amendments since immediately post-ratification militates against such a view. No right has been upheld as absolute, without any exceptions.
The lack of attempts to exercise such an exception could , just as plausibly as your example, be explained by a lack of political will, a view that places it lower in legislative priority, or the lack of social conditions prompting any attempt at regulation. Why would you assume the best answer is that people thought about it, but concluded it was beyond the pale?
"So, examples of past practice suggest a presumption that there is an exception merited."
Which is why we have defamation law, though Congress shall make no law...
No, no right has been absolute in practice, but if the right is stated absolutely, you need to demonstrate some basis for the exceptions, which the contemporary practice provides. And which going 200 years without such practice certainly does not.
Incorrect. The Second Amendment says that there is a (preexisting) right to keep and bear arms that the government can't infringe. The existence of historical precedents isn't a justification to infringe that right anyway: it's evidence that whatever that right encompasses, the challenged regulations don't infringe it at all. And unless you take the difficult-to-defend position that the founding-era legislatures tried to do everything they possibly could to come close the line without crossing it, those precedents illustrate the kind of thing that does or doesn't infringe the right: it doesn't serve as an exhaustive list of exactly what laws are permissible.
I'm not saying they did everything they thought they were entitled to do. Maybe they did, maybe they didn't.
I'm saying that the textual right sets up a presumption, and practice contrary to that presumption rebuts it. If there is no contrary practice, the presumption stands unrebutted for lack of contrary evidence.
Sure, maybe they thought they could do more, and just didn't bother. But, where is your evidence of that? Because the presumption created by the written right needs evidence to be overcome. Not just speculation.
You keep making this mistake. It doesn't say "Congress shall make no law." It says Congress shall make no law abridging something. What is that something? The text doesn't specify. It doesn't say "shall not be infringed." It says that something shall not be infringed. What is that something? The text doesn't answer that. You want to pretend it says "Congress shall make no law restricting speech" or "No law shall be passed limiting firearm ownership." But it doesn't.
I’m not sure if it’s a problem with Barrett’s approach, but given what you said about there being an actual Second Amendment, and similar rights in the states, the absence of any significant “gun control” in the 19th century is significant. Which is where I understand the history and tradition analysis comes into play, by whatever standard a particular shade of originalism chooses to look at it. And why I think the so-called history “experts” are mostly full of it with their alt-history looking for the thing they claim was a thing (Justice Stevens dissent in Heller). There were few gun control laws like 21st century moderns desire because everyone understood and accepted they violated all the Second Amendments out there. And those that did exist were idiosyncratic to particular situations and not at all representative of the legal norms.
That there could be multiple originalist views in a specific marginal case like Rahimi’s does not bother me in the least, especially when he waived any right to dispute his “dangerousness”. Probably not a lot, if any, of 19th century legal actions like this against an individual. It seems to me originalists are debating threshold issues about at what stage of legal proceedings such a fundamental right can be asserted as a defense against particular law. Professor Randy Barnett had some interesting thoughts on all that the other day, which I’m still digesting not being a lawyer and having been marinated in the post-New Deal Warren Court individual rights ethos which still permeates today.
"There were few gun control laws like 21st century moderns desire because everyone understood and accepted they violated all the Second Amendments out there."
That's why, for instance, the NFA was written as a tax law. It was considered unambiguously clear that the federal government simply and completely lacked any power to ban any sort of firearm. The most they could do was to heavily tax commerce in specific sorts of firearms.
It really wasn't until the latter part of the 20th century that Congress ever attempted to actually ban purchasing a gun. All they did prior to the 1986 FOPA was make it expensive.
Because they really did accept that they weren't constitutionally entitled to do anything more.
Do you have some authority for that? My impression was that it was more because there wasn't yet a consensus that the interstate commerce power didn't give the authority to outright ban a particular item. That was how a lot of federal regulation worked in the early 20th century, including in areas like narcotics that clearly don't implicate any constitutional rights.
1. I may be wrong, but my understanding is that Barrett AJ directed her critical point in Rahimi (see pp. 3 – 5 of her concurrence) quite discretely against the proposition that the validity of any federal law exclusive of the Con. prohibition must depend, or be presumed to depend, on the identification of a “specific analogue” in founding-era legislative action. I don’t understand her to have advanced therefore the contrary of this proposition; viz., that an absence of attested legislative action is sufficient evidence for recognising & enforcing a scope of US regulatory power unlimited by or exclusive of the right-based prohibition.
2. Is the product of the judicial duty to determine, on the facts, Con. criteria for the *infringement* of a Con. right, properly described as the "creation" of an "exception"? My point may be pedantic, but I don't think it's purely verbal. That duty is directed at elucidating the nature & scope of the primary right-based limitation on power. A regulation which falls outside the limitation is ex hypothesi exclusive of it, not an exception to it.
This place was great when you could just easily scroll past the Blackman posts and read the authors that weren’t utter hacks. But christ, summer vacay Blackman is clogging up the airwaves. Can we all chip in to endow a summer school professorship for him?
Yup. Blackman’s conclusion of his short (thankfully ) post:
“I still need to chew this through. Again, Justice Barrett’s short concurrence raised a lot of food for thought.”
May I suggest Josh take the time to to chew that food more thoroughly, and wait until it’s a little better digested, to excrete it ?
It seems sensible to me to have a broad rule of thumb that says that the Supreme Court should be more reluctant to declare a practice unconstitutional if it has a long pedigree. That isn't "to conclusively settle disputes", but out of a sense of epistemic modesty. The longer a practice has existed, the longer the list of people you're disagreeing with by declaring it unconstitutional.
Eminently sensible
Even if by any reasonable standard it is unconstitutional?
Should the SC have stood by Roe because it was in effect for 50 years?
Well, a broad rule of thumb is not a hard, fast, no exceptions condition. So, certainly there are justifications (limited and infrequent, but real) for overturning something with a history of practice that may be adjudged unconstitutional, consistent with such a rule of thumb.
I wouldn't extend that rule of thumb to the 2nd amendment, though, for one simple reason:
Between Miller and Heller, the Court spent 68 years refusing to take any 2nd amendment cases AT ALL. So, it's not like the practices that accumulated during that time were subject to normal judicial review. It was more like the case of the 14th amendment and Jim Crow, where the Court had deliberately decided not to enforce an amendment to the Constitution it disliked.
This is not originalist reasoning. Honestly, I'm not sure what method of interpretation this is. Critical theory maybe.
No, it's merely history. The same history that discouraged anyone from litigating up until to Brown v Board of Education. Also why many murders and lynchings went unprosecuted.
Also why, curiously, nobody litigated gay marriage as a constitutional right until Obergefell. It's the great thing about being a legal leftists, so many opportunities to pursue cases where there are no high court precedents, because there had been such an overwhelming legal consensus that something was not a right that the US Supreme Court never had the opportunity to render a precedential decision. I did enjoy how there were various lower court decisions (the NY state Court of Appeals being a great example), that were summarily ignored because Justice Kennedy preferred talking about human dignity.
Sauce for the goose, eventually the worm turns.
It is indeed history.
But Brett is trying to use that history to argue constitutional requirement.
That's a pretty hard lift, especially for an ostensible originalist.
The social background for how cases get overturned and rights established is an interesting study. I'm not sure if I see an asymmetry between the right and the left like you do, however. Both sides push the law sometimes and don't other times.
And both sides accuse the other of judicial overreach, sometimes legitimately sometimes not.
I agree with you on Kennedy's opinions, especially on hot button social issues, being doctrinally muddy.
Rejecting a rule of thumb isn't originalist or non-originalist, because it's not deciding the case, it's just rejecting a default, no analysis decision. It says nothing of the basis you'd use for deciding the case.
I'm absolutely floored that Brett Bellmore doesn't have time for the idea that if you're about to declare yourself smarter than a couple centuries worth of very smart people thinking about the issue, you might want to double-check your work.
Like striking down laws restricting abortions...cool!
For the record, I'm in favour of a right to abortion, but I'm profoundly undecided about whether such a right should be read into constitutions such as the US constitution.
Shouldn't the same apply to individual laws? The Logan Act was passed in 1799 but hasn't been successfully used against anyone ever. I think a reasonable rule should be that if a law hasn't been invoked in more than 50 years, it should automatically expire and drop off the books unless deliberately renewed.
The desuetude doctrine generally addresses such situations. Not perfectly, but reasonably well.
Too bad it isn't actually part of US constitutional law.
Connecticut's law regulating contraception would like a word with you in the 1960's.
Reminds me of Trump v Anderson when Thomas opened with this question to Colorado: “Do you have contemporaneous examples -- and by contemporaneous, I mean shortly after the adoption of the Fourteenth Amendment -- where the states disqualified national candidates, not its own candidates, but national candidates?”
I know you have other issues with that case but I remembering hearing the question and thinking why is that so relevant that it’s your first question.