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Second Circuit Rules that a "Passive Park" Qualifies as a Public Use Authorizing Use of Eminent Domain - Even if this Rationale is a Pretext for a Desire to Block Private Owners' Plan to Build a Hardware Store
The case raises an important issue about what qualifies as a "pretextual" taking. It's a rare takings issue on which I don't have a clear position.

The Takings Clause of the Fifth Amendment says the government may only "take" private property for a "public use." In cases like Berman v. Parker and Kelo v. City of New London, the Supreme Court has ruled (wrongly, in my view) that almost any potential benefit to the public qualifies as a "public use." Thus, in Kelo the Court upheld the condemnation of homes for purposes of promoting privately owned "economic development," even though the development plan in question was so badly flawed that the condemned property ended up (for many years) being used only by a colony of feral cats.
But the Kelo majority also indicated that a taking can still be invalidated if the government tries to "take property under the mere pretext of a public purpose, when its actual purpose was to bestow a private benefit." Under Kelo, pretextual takings are an exception to the general rule that the government can condemn property for virtually any reason.
How do courts determine whether a taking is pretextual? Since Kelo, lower-court decisions on that issue have been all over the map. In Chapter 7 of my book The Grasping Hand: Kelo v. City of New London and the Limits of Eminent Domain, I identified at least five different approaches to this issue adopted by state and lower federal courts since Kelo (see also this article).
Most pretextual takings cases deal with situations where the government condemns property for transfer to a private party. But in Brinkmann v. Town of Southold, the US Court of Appeals for the Second Circuit addressed a case where a condemnation for transfer to public ownership might still be pretextual, because the official rationale was a pretty obvious smokescreen for a different motive.
Prominent takings litigators Michael Berger and Robert Thomas have helpful summaries of the facts and what the court decided. Here's Thomas:
The facts of the case are pretty straightforward. The Brinkmanns wanted to build a big box hardware store on a 1.7 acre vacant parcel. The usual objections from area residents and the Town itself appeared (you know the drill): a store like this would result in too much additional traffic (traffic study said no), special permits and impact studies are needed (the owners began to comply), a moratorium on building permits in a one-mile radius, "despite the county government's finding that the moratorium lacked supportive evidence' (oops). Slip op. at 3. Even a failed attempt by the Town to buy the property itself before the Brinkmanns closed their purchase.
When all those didn't succeed in stopping the development, the Town began proceedings to forcibly acquire the land by eminent domain. What for, you ask? A public park. More precisely, a "passive use park." What's that, you ask? It isn't what you might think make a typical public park. Things like public facilities, art installations, walking trails, recreational and entertainment spots and stuff. No, this was to have none of those things, it was to be "a park with no significant facilities or improvements," also known as a big open, empty field.
Next step was a federal court section 1983 action by the Brinkmanns, "alleging a pretextual taking in violation of the Takings Clause of the Fifth Amendment." Slip op. at 4. The Town may have claimed that the taking was for a "classic" public use (a public park, even if it is a "passive use park"), but the Town's actual reason, the Brinkmanns alleged, was what we call a "spite taking" -- the Town didn't like the use we're making or going to make of our property, so decided to take it from us. This was the real motivation to take our property, and that's not a public use, according to the complaint. The district court wasn't having any of it, and dismissed for failure to state a claim.
A divided panel of the Second Circuit affirmed. This "pretext" thing you allege, property owner, is merely a "passing reference…." And we all know that when the legislature has declared that a certain use or interest is a public one, the courts have no role because "the public interest has been declared in terms well-nigh conclusive." Slip op. at 7 (quoting Berman v. Parker, 348 U.S. 26, 32 (1954)). Taking property by eminent domain is just legislation, property owners, so go make your fight in the political process. Don't bother the courts.
"There can be no dispute that a public park, even an unimproved one, is a public use." Slip op. at 8. The court distinguished between pretext for private benefit, and pretext for some use that isn't public….
The majority focused on the complaint's assertion that the Town's supervisor stated, "I will never allow anything to be built on this property." Id. In the majority's view, that statement revealed that the Town's motivation was just fine, because it didn't matter that the taking was for spite, as long as it wasn't for a private use or purpose. As the opinion put it, "Plaintiffs have not pointed to any Town purpose that violates the Takings Clause…"
In short (and this is our characterization, not the court's), the Fifth Amendment contains a Public Use Clause, not a "Good Motivation Clause…"
The key point in the majority opinion is that a taking can only be pretextual if the official rationale is a pretext for a scheme to benefit a private party. If, however, the government condemns property and does not transfer it to a private party or try to benefit such a party, then it doesn't matter whether the official stated purpose was the real motive for the taking or not.
The dissenting opinion by Judge Steven Menashi argues that a taking can be pretextual even if there is no plan to benefit a private party:
The court emphasizes that "[p]ublic parks have been recognized as a 'public use' for more than a century" and that a court should not "substitute its judgment for a legislature's judgment as to what constitutes a public use…" But no one disputes that a public park would be a public use. The plaintiffs instead argue that the Town of Southold does not want a public park. The court admits that the plaintiffs are right. The court acknowledges that the complaint in this case "alleges facts sufficient to support a finding that the decision to create the park was a pretext for defeating the Brinkmanns' commercial use" of their own property and that the Town decided to seize the Brinkmanns' property for a park only "after varied objections and regulatory hurdles that the Town interposed and that the Brinkmanns did or could surmount…." In other words, the Town did not like what the owners were doing with their property, but the Town was unable to muster the political support to pass a zoning law or to deny a permit. So the Town of Southold grabbed the land for itself….
The Constitution has nothing to say, according to the court, "when a property is taken for a public amenity as a pretext for defeating the owner's plans for another use…"
That is incorrect. In my view, the Constitution contains no Fake Park Exception to the public use requirement of the Takings Clause. A taking of property must be "for public use," U.S. Const. amend. V— or at least for "a public purpose," Kelo v. City of New London, 545 U.S. 469, 478 (2005)—and thwarting the rightful owner's lawful use of his
property is not a public purpose. I dissent.
Menashi goes on to point out (correctly) that Supreme Court precedent allows scrutiny of government motives in a wide variety of other cases (e.g. - when seemingly neutral policies are pretexts for efforts to engage in unconstitutional discrimination on the basis of race or religion). He also cites various state court cases where takings for pretextual motives were invalidated, even in some situations where the condemned property was not transferred to a private party. The majority distinguishes those cases on the grounds that they dealt with state constitutional law, had somewhat different facts, or were different for other reasons.
Having written a book and numerous articles on public use issues, I rarely run across a public use case where I'm unsure what the right outcome should be. But this is one of those rare times.
Pretextual takings doctrine is a mess generally. But I think it can legitimately be used to strike down a variety of takings for transfer to private parties; indeed, I believe most such takings are unconstitutional even aside from the pretextual motives, because I support the "narrow" view of "public use" under which the government may only take property for publicly owned facilities or private ones that have a legal duty to serve the entire public.
In most situations, the narrow view is satisfied when the government takes property for public ownership - even if the motive for the taking is unrelated to the potential benefits of the new use. So far, I side with the majority. But this case is different from most takings for public ownership because the government isn't actually using the condemned property for anything. As Judge Menashi puts it, the supposed "public park" is actually "fake."
This opens up the possibility there can be public ownership without public use. To be sure, there can sometimes be "use" even if the government doesn't build anything on the land it takes. For example, it could decide to use the property as a nature preserve. But there is no such use here, not even a "passive" one. The only goal is to block the Brinkmanns' plan to build a hardware store, not to use the land for any affirmative purpose.
Perhaps such blocking can still be a "use." But the issue is a difficult and murky one.
Both Robert Thomas and Michael Berger suggest the Supreme Court might take up this case. Pretextual takings jurisprudence has long been a mess, and at least four Supreme Court justices have expressed interest in clearing it up, and perhaps overruling or limiting Kelo in the process.
I very much hope the Supreme Court does clean up the mess and - better still - overrules Kelo. But this case is not a good vehicle for that.
Unlike Kelo, it does not address the issue of condemnations for transfer to private parties. It instead deals with the unusual situation where the government retains the condemned property but has no desire to do anything with it other than block a private use it objects to. The issue is an extremely difficult one. And even if the Court resolves this hard question correctly, doing so would not do much to improve public use doctrine more generally.
For those reasons, I would prefer the Supreme Court take up a public use case whose facts are more similar to those of Kelo. At the very least, it should involve the condemnation of property for transfer to a new private owner.
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Apologies if I’m being obtuse, but what is the pretext here? The town appears to be saying that they think the public interest is better served by having this parcel be an undeveloped field instead of a Home Depot or whatever. What do you think their actual motive is?
Their motive is to serve the NIMBY interests. We Don't Like It is not sufficient reason to take someone's property. If the case were simply about what elected officials think the community would prefer, then the community has the ability to steal property. It's clear here that there was no interest in a public park - it was strictly an effort to block a landowner's choice of how to - legally - use their own property. They complied with all zoning and other regulations. We don't give the government power to over-rule freedom of speech, and we shouldn't let them over-rule freedom of property.
Isn’t that exactly what eminent domain is?
Well eminent domain is sometimes necessary in that like how there are limits to free expression, unlimited property rights also cause issues to the functioning of government.
That being said, "public use" in the US seems to be infra-rational basis which is...questionable. A court *should* at least figure out if what the government claims is a public use actually is one (a "passive park" isn't actually a public use, it's probably going to become a landfill or a motorbike rally), and if less invasive options which are equally effective and not more burdensome on the government are available for the public use (even if we do throw in a dollop of deference).
“Isn’t that exactly what eminent domain is?”
Well…yes and no.
Typically eminent domain is meant for actual public use. A necessary public use is determined beforehand (i.e, we need a road or a park or something at this location, and can’t get the property via normal means, so we need to take it).
In this case, it’s something of a negative. The town decided that they “don’t” want this box store there, so they’re going to seize the land for a “park” when there may be perfectly good alternatives elsewhere.
But, let’s put a hypothetical situation out there for you. Let’s say the town says, after a year, “We don’t really want this park here, we’re going to sell the land”. What’s the recourse?
Let’s use a different hypothetical. “African American Family” decided to buy a property to build a house. Town says “We don’t want African American Family living here, so we’re going to seize their property by eminent domain for a park”. Is there anything wrong with that situation?
Not if that was in my neighborhood.
The town has demonstrated that they have no intention of using the land for public use.
The facts are pretty strong that the purpose of the taking is to prevent a private property owner from using the property for its highest and best use.
kelo was wrongly decided, yet the court wants to extend the flawed holding.
"[T]he public interest is better served" is not the correct legal standard. It's not even close to the right legal standard. If it were, I could take your (existing) home, evict you and leave the home vacant because I think the community would be "better served" if you weren't here. Our system of government and our sense of basic fairness allows no such discretion to government officials.
The correct legal standard is "public use". The pretext is that the city has admitted that they intend no use (public or otherwise).
"The correct legal standard is “public use”. The pretext is that the city has admitted that they intend no use (public or otherwise)."
Very important distinction - The city has no intention of using the property for public use. Also demonstrates one of the many reasons kelo was wrong, creates an avenue for the governments to circumvent the requirements of 5A and public use.
It doesn't?
What do you think they're going to do with it?
Read the opinion starting at page 6, lots indications that the city has no intention of actually using the property as a park.
indications that they intend to do nothing with the property.
The dissent is correct that the case should be sent back to the district court for fact finding.
Page 6 doesn't say anything about what the city intends to do with the property (it's almost all a block quote from Kelo), nor does anything that follows, as far as I can tell.
These comments got messed up, but to put Bob from Ohio's comment below in context for future readers, I said something about unimproved land open to the public being a public use.
"unimproved area open to the public"
Exactly, I just don't see how its not a public use. Sometimes we call such a thing the trendy name of "green space".
It is NOT available for public use.
Unless the govt comes up with rules for use, ZERO public use is allowed.
Are you saying that the city would not allow me to play frisbee with my friend on that field? Or allow Bob to play catch with his kids? Or allow you to plop down a blanket and have a picnic with your significant other?
Of course, if I had been the legal advisor to the govt here; I would have told them, "Spend 1% more, and put in a bench or two, and maybe one see-saw as well. Now, it's inarguably an official park."
We need more lawyers!!! 😉
Can you point me to where they admitted that?
The county *could* have at least gone to the bother of making some shiny graphics showing how transformative for the local community and its sustainability a 1.3 acre passive park could have been (I’m thinking of an AI generated artist’s impression) and erm…maybe claimed they were going to put some gravel in a corner to park some cars and erect a wooden shed called an “information point”?
That's the thing. If they had simply agreed to put up a basketball goal at one end and a tennis net on the other, they would have an airtight case. I don't see why they are so demanding that the field be completely empty.
They wouldn't even need to do that. Just mow a path down the middle and call it a "Native Wildflower Reserve".
I am very reluctantly forced to agree that this was a taking for a public purpose. The public purpose, preventing a store from being built on the property, was a stupid one, but as long as the local government doesn't hand the property over to somebody else, even sitting vacant IS a 'use' of sorts. (If they turn around and sell it to somebody else, all bets are off.)
The real question is the amount of the compensation. The local government will clearly want to only compensate for the undeveloped value. It should be compensated for the value of the Brinkmanns intended use.
That is one of the major problems with the compensation part of 5A.
"compensation" is often based on current use and not highest and best use. Common example is sport stadiums, value of property as residence (1/4 acre) is often a fraction of the value of the land converted to commercial property.
It would seem that in the sports stadium case the higher value is the result of eminent domain consolidating the property with 100 other properties that otherwise would be virtually impossible to consolidate. The logistics of such consolidation by a private developer without government force are likely to end up with holdouts who will demand a ridiculously high price and anyone else who hasn’t yet contractually committed to sell would then likely also demand an absurdly high price.
In this case the parcel (appears) to already be zoned for the use the Brinkmanns want to put it to and, absent government intervention to reduce its value (by making it clear that the government will prevent it being used for what it is currently zoned for), it would be worth whatever it would be in that (or other allowed) use. It seems the proper valuation is its current value before the government reduced its value by fiat.
re: your sports stadium scenario - That precise logic is just as applicable to every office park, mall, factory, apartment complex or other business venture in the US. Yet thousands of those successfully get built every year without the need for eminent domain.
That said, I agree with your valuation argument.
yes and no
once the plans for the new stadium is announced, or that new road, or the new development, the value of the property will change to reflect the market
The real question is the amount of the compensation. The local government will clearly want to only compensate for the undeveloped value. It should be compensated for the value of the Brinkmanns intended use.
Absolutely right. The value of the property is its value with a hardware store on it.
Think of it this way: Suppose the Brinkmanns had built their store, and now the town wanted to take the property, tear down the store, and put in a (real) park. Wouldn't the Brinkmanns be entitled to be compensated for their lost store?
And I'm not convinced there is no private benefit here. Are there not hardware stores in the area? Don't they benefit by the town blocking construction of a large new one? In fact, I wouldn't be astonished if that motivated some of the opposition.
Sure, but I'm not sure they're entitled to it before they've spent the money to build it!
According to the opinion, there was one hardware store in town. The owner agreed to sell to the Brinkmanns and take a job managing the new store, so I don't think that's what was going on.
(NB: Contrary to my initial assumption, it looks like the Brinkmanns run a small local chain and were going to open a new location for that, not a Home Depot.)
"Sure, but I’m not sure they’re entitled to it before they’ve spent the money to build it!"
You're right that they are not entitled to the value of a building they have not yet built.
But land has value because of its potential use. A lot that can be used to build a big hardware store has more value than one that has to be left empty. That's where the rubber meets the road.
I’m not sure they’re entitled to it before they’ve spent the money to build it!
It's not the same value, of course, since you have to allow for construction costs and so on, and the risk the business won't be as profitable as hoped. But note that since they already own some hardware stores there is reason to believe they know what they are doing.
None of that changes the principle that the value to the owners is likely much greater than the value as an empty lot. Dealing with the fact that the store hasn't yet been built is just a matter of arithmetic.
Right. As I said.
I sometimes see signs on empty lots for sale, and it says something like "zoned for commercial use." That adds to the value of the lot. A lot that you can't do anything with is almost worthless.
No, this was to have none of those things, it was to be "a park with no significant facilities or improvements," also known as a big open, empty field.
I assume the city will begin hassling itself with tickets for not mowing.
On the other hand, I assume someone's cousin will get a high dollar contract to mow the "park".
The problem, of course, is that if we start having scrutiny of government motives, then that opens up a Pandora's Box for evaluation of all kinds of stuff.
The problem, of course, is that if we start having scrutiny of government motives, then that opens up a wonderful, beautiful future for evaluation of all kinds of stuff.
Ftfy
Ha ha.
People can use a big open, empty field for lots of things. Frisbee, throwing a baseball around etc.
"I hate eminent domain" is no reason for a court to set aside a taking. Owner is getting compensated, the recent sale is going to be strong [perhaps decisive] evidence of its fair market value.
Yes, but the owner is still screwed. Should get "investment-backed expectations" and comp for all the money spent acquiring property.
Exactly. The real question here his how much they get compensated. Probably should be a lot more than the local government wants to compensate him.
"I hate lying politicians" is fine with me, though.
Most likely an offer at tax valuation, with a promise of lawyer's fees if challenged.
Nature preserves are essentially unimproved parks.
Are they all pretextual?
No, but when the local government has no interest in a nature preserve until someone wants to build something on a vacant but privately owned lot, then suddenly they need a nature preserve on that exact lot, that’s a tad suspicious.
They've spent an awful lot not improving our local nature preserve. Boardwalks and bridges, mostly, and some observing platforms. Got to see a 20" bass laying her eggs last Sunday.
But that doesn't appear to be the aim in this case, it really does appear to just be preventing the intended private use. So that's the use the Brinkmans should be compensated for having taken.
A 1.3 acre "nature preserve" in the middle of suburbia? No, that's not plausible. No competent ecologist would support such a thing. That's simply not enough area to support a viable ecosystem. Even a field mouse population couldn't survive on only that amount of space. That makes it not a "preserve".
Your question is valid in theory but only for areas large enough to be an actual preserve - hundreds of acres at least, though I'd put the cut-off at closer to a square mile as the smallest area sufficient to support even a small songbird population.
I agree with the comments and the court.
Southold, NY, is way out near the tip of Long Island and there's little chance of anyone overcoming the (obvious) NIMBYism there - again even as I agree with the court.
.
No, but when the local government has no interest in a nature preserve until someone wants to build something on a vacant but privately owned lot, then suddenly they need a nature preserve on that exact lot, that's a tad suspicious.
That was meant to be a reply to someone else
Perhaps a fair answer could be found on the “just compensation” side of the equation.
The land’s value to the owners is the income stream into the future of the business use, not the bare-land value that the town undoubtedly asserted. And there’s always some price (based on projected income stream minus development and operating expenses) where a rational business owner would sell instead of continuing the development. Figure out what that value is, and give it to the [former] owners. If that's too spendy for the town, that's the town's problem.
I would have fewer objections to the apparent pretextual taking if the owners are compensated fully, as the Constitution requires.
The problem is the govt had the property zoned commercial. It was purchased and going to be commercial use.
That means the govt failed to meet their own governing law. If the govt wanted the area vacant, they had the opportunity to change the zoning, did not.
According to Prof. Somin’s theory, that also would have been a taking!
They could declare they are taking the property to protect Black Lives then it would be illegal hate speech to complain