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Oral Arguments in Trump v. Anderson Part IV: Justice Sotomayor and Kagan get the line between national power and federalism
The states do not need Section 3 to impose qualifications on state-created positions. But only the national government should decide questions about the President.
[This is the four installment in a series about the oral argument in Trump v. Anderson. The first installment focused on Justice Gorsuch's colloquies about
Officers of the United States." The second installment focused on Justice Jackson's colloquies about "Office under the United States." The third installment focused on Justice Kavanuagh's colloquies about Griffin's Case and Justice Barrett's questions about federal courts. This fourth installment focuses on questions from Justices Kagan and Sotomayor about the proper line between federal oversight and state regulations.]
There was a tension in yesterday's oral argument in Trump v. Anderson. On the one hand, there was a consensus from the bench that states have the power to impose qualifications on their own state officials. On the other hand, there was a consensus from the bench that a fifty-state solution for electing the presidency, as Akhil Amar described it, would be a terrible idea. Justices Sotomayor and Kagan, in particular, recognized this line between federalism and national power. There is a way to reconcile these doctrines. And, perhaps to no one's surprise, Jonathan Mitchell resisted any effort to reconcile these doctrines. He was wedded to his concept of complete preemption. Tillman and I anticipated this issue, and offered just such a reconciliation in our article.
What is national?
Perhaps the most pointed moment of the oral argument came from Justice Kagan. She articulated in a very succinct fashion why it would be a terrible idea if each state could decide who can become President.
JUSTICE KAGAN: But maybe put most boldly, I think that the question that you have to confront is why a single state should decide who gets to be president of the United States. In other words, you know, this question of whether a former president is disqualified for insurrection to be president again is, you know, just say it, it sounds awfully national to me. So whatever means there are to enforce it would suggest that they have to be federal, national means. Why does --you know, if you weren't from Colorado and you were from Wisconsin or you were from Michigan and it really --you know, what the Michigan secretary of state did is going to make the difference between, you know, whether Candidate A is elected or Candidate B is elected, I mean, that seems quite extraordinary, doesn't it?
Akhil Amar's amicus brief, and a New York Times guest essay, tried to sell a Brandeisian 50-state solution for electing the President. I don't think that position gained any traction. Rather, there was a general consensus that the national government must be able to enforce Section 3 against the President. Even if the Justices may not agree that Griffin's Case was right as a matter of first principles, all of the Justices seem to see the wisdom in Chase's opinion. Believe it or not, judges today and judges in 1869 tend to be pragmatic. How the Court executes that approach is to be determined.
What is local?
While there was a general consensus that Congress should enforce the Section 3 disqualification, there was also a recognition that states have some role to regulate their local positions. During a colloquy, Justice Sotomayor said, "So history proves a lot to me and to my colleagues generally." She actually turned around and looked right at Justice Gorsuch, her neighbor. It was pretty blatant. Sotomayor said, "[t]here's a whole lot of examples of states relying on Section 3 to disqualify insurrectionists for state offices." She said that under Jonathan Mitchell's position, "Congress must permit states or require states to stop insurrectionists from taking state office." Justice Sotomayor returned to this theme later. She said "what sense does it say that states can't enforce Section 3 against their own officials?"
How did Mitchell answer it? Again, he hedged on whether Griffin's Case was correct: "the answer to all three of those questions turns on whether this Court agrees with the holding of Griffin's Case. If Griffin's Case is the proper enunciation of the law, then a state cannot do any of the things Your Honor suggested unless Congress gives it authority to do so through implementing legislation." Mitchell adopted a position that could not distinguish between local and national positions. I think this position is wrong.
The Tillman-Blackman Approach
From the earliest days, Tillman and I recognized a way that would reconcile the state's power to regulate local officials and national officials. States do not need Section 3 to impose additional qualifications on state officials. States always have the power to impose qualifications on their own officials. Under the Tenth Amendment, the states have the reserved power to regulate their own offices and officers. If a state wants to prohibit its appointed and elected officials from holding office if they engaged in insurrection, they can. Indeed, they could make that disqualification for state positions permanent, such that it cannot be lifted by Congress. But the states need federal enforcement legislation to enforce disabilities against federal officials, including the President.
Our article explained:
Of course, even in the absence of federal legislation, a state could pass a statute and mirror Section 3's "qualifications," and any such state statutory "qualifications" could extend to its own officials and officers (subject to federal constitutional constraints). This is a power states had before, during, and even after the enactment of the Fourteenth Amendment for state positions. But absent congressional authorization, a state statute (even one mirroring Section 3's "qualifications") could not apply to federal officials and officers. Chase read Section 5 as giving Congress a monopoly over enforcement of Section 3. Sweeping and Forcing at 447.
We use this basic principle to explain some of the decisions from 1869 and 1870 from Louisiana and North Carolina in which state officials were deemed disqualified. Again, the question of whether Section 3 is self-executing is separate from whether states can impose new qualifications on state officials. We explained those North Carolina and Louisiana cases:
Thus, Section 3 furnishes the categories for which disqualification would apply. But Section 3 was not applied directly. Actually excluding a person from office still required a state statute supplying a cause of action. A state legislature can supply such a statute for a state position because a state always has authority to do so (subject to a few federal constitutional limitations). But there is no such coordinate authority for a state legislature to supply a statute which would remove a person from a federal position or deny that person a line on the state ballot for a federal elective position—at least, there is no such authority absent a federal authorizing statute. Sweeping and Forcing at 447-48.
The problem is not states enforcing Section 3 against state officials. The problem is states enforcing Section 3 against federal officials. Justice Sotomayor stated the issue neatly: "Can states enforce the Insurrection Clause against their own office holders, or can they enforce it against federal officials, or can they enforce it against the president? Those are all three different questions in my mind." They are different questions, and the answer would vary for state and federal positions. Yes, states can disqualify state officials based on insurrection. No, states cannot enforce Section 3 against federal positions absent enforcement legislation.
Where does the authority come from?
As I noted in my earlier post, Justice Barrett, the former federal courts professor was on fire. She absolutely nailed why Mitchell's position was wrong. She asked, "Why don't you have an argument that the Constitution of its own force, that Section 3 of its own force, preempts the state's ability not necessarily, I think, not, to enforce Section 3 against its own officers but against federal officers, like in a Tarble's Case kind of way." She is exactly right. The preemption argument would only attach to federal positions. This would have been an opportunity for Mitchell to pivot. But he didn't.
Mitchell responded, "there could also be an argument that's more limited. You're suggesting there may be a barrier under the Constitution to a state legislating an enforcement mechanism for Section 3 specific to federal officers." Justice Barrett responded incredulously: "Well, why aren't you making those arguments?" I had the same question! Mitchell answered "Because that doesn't get us [to] Griffin's Case." Justice Barrett continued, "That only gets you out of state court, it doesn't get you out of federal court?" Mitchell answered, "Right."
I don't think that answer is quite right. Whether the suit is brought in federal court or state court, the answer is the same: states have the reserved power to impose qualifications on their own state officials under the Tenth Amendment. Griffin's problem was not that he sought relief in federal court; his problem was that he sought affirmative relief in federal court absent a federal cause of action. I think this colloquy goes back to the confusion about the direct appeal/collateral challenge question.
Justice Gorsuch also pressed Patrick Murray, who represented the Colorado voters, on this issue. "Do you agree that the state's powers here over its ballot for federal officer election have to come from some constitutional authority?" Murray acknowledged that there has been disagreement on this point. (Justice Thomas dissented in Term Limits and Justice Gorsuch wrote an article critical of the case.) Murray answered, the power over electors can be located "in Article II or in a reserved power under the Tenth Amendment." This answer is not quite right. Electors did not predate the Constitution, so it is not clear to me how they could be state positions over which there is a "reserved power." Chiafalo recognizes that Article II gives states power over electors, but it is not reserved under the Tenth Amendment. But Murray's argument, whether he realizes it or not, answers the questions from Sotomayor and others. The states always have the reserved power over their own officials.
Section 3 and Federal Officials
In our article, we recognized that there is no history of states enforcing Section 3 against federal officials:
We are not aware of any such case, where absent federal authorizing legislation, a candidate for a federal elective position was denied a position on the state ballot based on purported Section 3 disqualification. Sweeping and Forcing at 447-48.
This issue came up at several junctures during oral argument. Justice Alito asked, "Is there any history of states using Section 3 as a way to bar federal officeholders?" The answer is no. Justice Thomas asked a similar question of Patrick Murray, counsel for Respondents. "Do you have contemporaneous examples --and by contemporaneous, I mean shortly after the adoption of the Fourteenth Amendment --where the states disqualified national candidates, not its own candidates, but national candidates?" Murray only offered one example from Georgia. I've looked into that record. It is very murky, and I would be hesitant to put much weight into it. Justice Thomas pressed further. He said "I understand that. I understand the states controlling state elections and state positions. What we are talking about here are national candidates." There are none.
The rule that Tillman and I have advanced is consistent with what little practice there is.
A narrow ground of ruling
Justice Sotomayor suggested a very narrow ground for ruling. She suggested the Court could "hold more narrowly in a reversal that it's not Section 3 that's at issue but Thornton and others as to whether Section 3 can be enforced by states against the president?" Her point was not entirely clear, but I think I got the gist: Section 3 cannot be enforced against any elected federal officials--members of Congress and the President--absent federal legislation. That narrow holding would resolve the case now.
***
Tuesday, I flew to D.C. Wednesday, I presented at Heritage. Thursday morning, I appeared on C-SPAN Washington Journal, and attended oral argument in the Supreme Court. Thursday afternoon, I flew back home from Washington to Houston. Friday morning, I flew from Houston to San Diego. (Three costs in two days: East, Gulf, and West.) And Saturday morning, I will join a panel at the Originalism Works in Progress conference with my friends Will Baude and Mike Paulsen. We'll talk about (what else) Section 3! It is very unusual for professors to present "works in progress" papers that are already complete, and on which the United States Supreme Court already heard oral argument. But I am always happy to share the stage with Mike and Will to engage in the arena of ideas. I am hopefully optimistic that Trump v. Anderson will be a triumph for originalism.
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Great legal analysis. I too believed Mitchell held back. I noticed that even Justice Jackson was wondering why he wasn’t making certain arguments.
Also, it’s the fourth installment and you traveled three coasts in two days. Sorry for being that guy, I really am. I’m a spelling fascist.
I've pointed this out in regards to Section 3 self-execution.
States don't need a federal statute to disqualify their own officers. But this isn't self-execution, they had that power without Section 3.
Congress doesn't need a federal statute to disqualify its own members. Article 1 gives each chamber all the authority they need for that.
The Senate doesn't need a federal statute to disqualify nominees; It can refuse to confirm on any basis it wishes.
So, a history of disqualification of state officials, members of Congress, and nominees, is not evidence of self-execution!
Not after the person has already been confirmed.
After someone is confirmed to a position, they are no longer a nominee.
That is correct, but they are a category of people that Brett's analysis ignored.
Are you suggesting that if Section Three is self-executing, states can remove a federal officer?
I don't see how anyone could get that from what I wrote.
Are We still a Republic ?
Is the USA a republic with self-government ?
From the Civil War onwards this experiment has gone sour via excessive federal \ national broadening and intrusive actions. More so is the departure from understanding the Constitution when inflicted by its attendant and ever growing federal law component.
In the Federalist Papers, Jay commented, and I paraphrase some, that even then one could not be fully versed in all the laws that then existed. And so today . . . ?
The above article's nuances are not for the everyday person as would these legal minds understand the workings of everyday machines. Take note and long remember where power resides when anyone is outside of their limited sphere of knowledge. Complexity breeds fragility and that the requirement for getting along with each other is ever more and greatly demanded.
Hopefully, all will let this latest chapter in voodoo lawfare attempts to further inflict damage on our cherished, one-of-a-kind system, be ended. People will be around to pick up the pieces and repair it as it's what We do.
Yes, let's just "terminate" the Constitution and be done with it.
Sometimes I have to wonder if Profs. Tillman and Blackman have ever actually read the constitution. Each state can select Presidential electors any way they choose. It can pass state laws directing those electors to cast their votes a certain way. How is that not a 50 state solution? If Colorado determined that their electors shall not cast their votes for Donald Trump, or some other individual, how is that interpreted as Colorado determining on their own who gets to be President? They are simply exercising the power given to them by the Constitution. When enough states decide that someone shouldn't be President, that person doesn't get to be President.
The Constitution mandates a state by state process to determine the presidency. There is no national election. Not Justice Kagan's best moment. What a stupid comment by her.
Yet that thought carries the day and may even led to a unanimous decision. Don't be surprise that the opinion is written by Justice Jackson.
"We are not final because we are infallible, but we are infallible only because we are final."
The first Justice Jackson
To Alpheus,
Yeah, I’m sure they have never read the Constitution. They skipped that day in law school. He coauthored a scholarly 200+paper but nah, he very likely has never read the Constitution.
Can the states direct their electors to vote for only white candidates? Or for only Protestant candidates? If you had listened to the hearing this was was asked by one of the Justices. Respondents said no because of provisions in the Constitution. So this whole “states can do whatever the hell they want!” arguments is indicative of a very poor understanding of federalism and constitutionalism. States have reserved powers and certain powers delegated to the federal government. The issue here is, is this the one area Congressional power is needed.
I have brought you up to speed now.
Well, to be fair, I have occasionally seen real, live Constitutional scholars make boner mistakes, like suggesting that Obama could get a third term by the simple expedient of being some other Democrat's VP, and having them resign immediately on taking office.
They've certainly read it, but you sometimes get the impression that it's been a long while since some of them have done more than read about it.
If one mistakenly treats the constitution like a computer program — as you often do! — then this is a plausible argument. The term limits amendment — the 22nd — literally says that someone can't be elected president more than twice; it doesn't say that one can't serve as president more than twice. (I'm ignoring the finishing-a-partial-term part for now.) Now, that's ridiculous and nobody would actually apply it that way — and yet people are trying to parse A14S3 with that same level of silliness.
JR74 of course any action performed by any government in this country is restricted by the Constitution. Which part do you believe prevents Colorado from restricting Donald Trump from receiving votes from its electors?
And by the way, hyperbole is exaggeration for effect. You really couldn't tell I was doing that? If so, now I've brought you up to speed. Try to read more intelligently.
Which part restricts Colorado? Section 3 of the 14thA the very amendment in question. My point is that you think there is no other side to this argument. So if you concede that electors can be restricted by provisions of the Constitution then its question begging on your part to say that States can do anything when it comes to electors. This was brought up in the hearing.
Brought you up to speed…again.
As for your hyperbole, all hyperboles are meant to exaggerate an underlying claim of fact. So while I understood that you surely didn’t mean that they never read the constitution you were conveying that they didn’t read it seriously enough. My response was meant to convey also on such an absurdist level that two scholars would surely have read it with such seriousness and rigor that they did address your criticisms.
The question is, have you read his coauthored papers?
So section 3 itself prevents the action Colorado has taken, as stated by you with no explanation. Talk about question begging. When I say they can "do anything they want" with electors, the intelligent reader would understand I meant anything allowed by other sections of the constitution. Your arguments are just being pedantic.
My hyperbole refers to my opinion that Prof. Tillman is so dug into his hyper-textualist argument about the trees, he has seemingly forgotten about the constitutional forest. His conclusion that the office of the Presidency isn't covered by section 3, or the emoluments clause for that matter, makes no logical sense in the overall scheme of things, nor is there any real historical backing for that conclusion, other than the few he cherrypicks while ignoring others. Yes, in fact, I have read his coauthored papers, as well as most of the ones he has written himself.
I'm well up to speed, and entirely uninterested in your pedantry.
Since the electors, but not the president, are chosen by the state, the state could DQ an elector, but not the president, for insurrection.
That's not entirely clear to me. Electors seem more like Congressmen than state legislators. They are elected in state run elections and represent the state or a portion of it federally.
Chiafalo holds — in my opinion incorrectly, but it nevertheless says it — that states can control how their electors vote.
I'm curious why you think Chiafalo's holding is abstract enough to support a state instructing its electors not to vote for the candidate its citizens voted for. That seems to turn on its head the actual, crystal-clear holding, e.g.:
I suppose you agree with Murray (representing the electors!) that Colorado's legislature can pass a law 3 days before the election awarding Colorado's electoral votes to Biden because the polls show Trump could win?
It wasn't long ago the Independent state legislature theory was fringe right wing theory, now it must be pushed to stop Trump.
That is not what the independent state legislature theory is about. Absolutely zero people disagree with the argument that Colorado’s legislature can pass a law 3 days before the election awarding Colorado’s electoral votes to Biden (or anyone else). That's explicit in the constitution. The ISL theory is not that state legislatures can legislate with respect to federal elections, but rather that state courts cannot play any role in administering federal elections, such as by holding a particular state election law unconstitutional.
In Pennsylvania, I think it was, the state supreme court decided it didn't like a provision of a recently enacted state election law, which just happened to have an anti-severance clause stating that if any portion of it at all were to be held unconstitutional, the entire law was void, and state election law reverted to its previous state.
It was the product of a difficult legislative compromise, and they didn't want the courts picking and choosing which parts of the deal actually happened...
So the court didn't find any part of it unconstitutional, but instead they used their equitable powers to direct that part of it, though eminently constitutional, merely be violated. On account of circumstances that the legislature had taken into consideration when drafting the law.
You see things like that happen, and ISL starts to look pretty reasonable.
Once again, Brett: you don't understand the law. You should stop pretending you do. The court did in fact find it unconstitutional, as applied. And an anti-severance provision makes no sense in that context, and they followed established Pennsylvania law in so holding.
Kaz - yes, I believe that 3 days before the election, they could change the state law calling for an election to determine electors, and just appoint the electors themselves. What in your opinion would prevent them from doing that? Other than the fact that they would all probably be voted out of office. I would hope.
I'm very concerned about the notion in this post that the United States has a "national" government. While there are certainly aspects of national scope that the federal government undertakes, I fail to see how the U.S. has a national government in the same sense as other countries.
If it does not, the lack thereof sure costs the taxpayers an awfully lot of money.
A national government in the same sense as what other countries? Lots of countries have regional governments in addition to their national or federal one. Wikipedia lists the US among 26 other federal countries.
I think you can distinguish between countries where the regional governments are mere administrative districts, similar to counties in (most) US states, and countries where the regional governments actually have a portion of the sovereign power reserved to them, and can not be overruled on some topics. There are both sorts about.
The US started with the Articles of Confederation as something like the EU, just a federation of sovereign states. The Constitution advanced it somewhat towards unitary nation status, but hardly all the way. Most of the trip towards unitary nation status since has been accomplished by judicially endorsed power grabs.
Yes, Wikipedia also lists "regionalized unitary states" -- and there are more of those than there are "federations" -- but my fundamental point is that plenty of countries have the same kind of federal structure as the US notionally has.
On the other hand, there was a consensus from the bench that a fifty-state solution for electing the presidency, as Akhil Amar described it, would be a terrible idea.
If a 50-state solution to electing the President is so obviously terrible, then everyone is ready to do away with the Electoral College, right?
The Constitution gives state governments a lot of room to do what they want to choose their Electors. The current practice where every state and D.C. hold popular votes to determine who the Electors will be is not required by the Constitution at all. Why should it seem so terrible for each state to decide which candidates are even eligible to have Electors pledged to support them?
I view this as an implicit admission that the Electoral College itself is a "terrible idea" for the modern world. It has its roots in the elitism of the Founding era, where the Founders were worried that the great mass of less educated and worldly people could be easily swayed by potential tyrants or that a popular majority that would trample on the rights of the minority. Thus, the great mass of the people were not trusted to directly elect the President.
I don't mind so much that smaller population states get some extra weight in choosing the President. What bothers me the most about the Electoral College are two things:
The idea of voting for Electors that will make the actual choice for President is insulting and condescending to every citizen in the modern age. And winner-take-all for the electoral votes of a state for all but two of them distorts the process to the point where the choice is really made in a dozen or fewer states.
Serious question...in what way is voting for Electoral College Electors insulting? Is it anti-democratic, or is it demeaning?
Isn't the Electoral College was designed exactly for what we have today. To borrow your words, we have a potential tyrant (ok, ok POTUS Trump the Tyrant!*) who holds sway over a significant minority of American society (and might be a majority if polls are to be believed). He is running for his old office. He says that if he wins, it is payback time. POTUS Trump the Tyrant's temperament is such, that it is a believable threat when he says it will be payback time. Suppose he wins the election. Stranger things have happened.
Don't you want an Electoral College in this instance?
*I admit I am being humorous here, but the serious point remains
He's not saying that voting for Electors is insulting. He's saying that the Electors being allowed to do whatever they want, regardless of how people voted, is. (And if they're not allowed to do so, then it's just pointless. Which of course we all know it is, which is why many if not most states don't even put the potential Electors' names on the ballot, but instead just list the president's name.)
It was designed for that purpose, yes. But it has never functioned that way, and if it were used that way — if Electors simply ignored the voters, exercised their own judgment, and voted for someone else — there would be public mutiny.¹
¹Of course, a handful do exactly that from time to time — the so-called "faithless electors" — but only as protest votes; none have of course been outcome-determinative. (And the very sobriquet "faithless elector" says it all.) Not including Horace Greeley's in 1872 — who don't really count as "faithless," since Greeley was dead at the time — there have been only 27 such electors in over 230 years.
"And if they’re not allowed to do so, then it’s just pointless."
Not totally, no. The electoral college itself was a compromise intended to deal with slow communications, but the allocation of electors itself was intended to prevent a few large states effectively ruling over the entire country by giving smaller states more weight.
Much like the structure of Congress, of course, which had that objective, too.
Now, maybe you think a few large states SHOULD be able to rule over the entire country, but that doesn't mean the structure has no purpose, just that you don't like the purpose.
No, it wasn't. Also, that's irrelevant, because you can have the electoral college without electors. That is, you can allocate the votes in the way the EC does without having actual individuals casting the votes. (Which we effectively do.)
What? Giving more power to smaller states was absolutely one of the reasons for its creation.
That was the reason they decided to mimic the same representational compromise they used for Congress. The reason it was created was that they did not want the President elected by popular vote, and they didn't want the President selected by Congress. And they were running short on time and ideas.
But by letting state legislatures dictate outcomes to electors, the Supreme Court is necessarily letting state legislatures create qualifications for President other than those imposed by the Constitution. Nothing in the Constitution says that a Presidential candidate has to receive the support of a plurality of a state’s citizens in a poll taken at the time of elector appointment to be eligible or on the ballot to receive the state’s electoral votes at the (actual constitutional) Presidential election in December.
It’s a completely extra-constitutional, state-legislature-imposed qualification requirement.
Limiting the set of candidates Electors are permitted to vote for at an election IS imposing qualifications on the set of candidates that are permitted to appear on the election ballot. To suggest there is any difference between the two is absurd.
Again, the only national election for President that takes place is the one the ,Constitution provides for, which is the one that takes place in December. No national or federal election for President takes place in November. It’s just a pre-election poll that some states have decided to take, on their own initiative and solely as a matter of their own internal, local laws, to help them determine how to appoint their electors.
If Thornton has any legitimate application here, it would be to hold that the Constitution prohibits outside parties, such as the US Supreme Court, from imposing their own policy-based limitations on the set of choices that the party explicitly granted decision-making power, here state legislatures, is permitted to make. Thornton here ought to protect state legislatures’ decisions regarding Presidential elections from policy-based meddling outside interference for exactly the same reasons that it protects citizen voters from such interference in Congressional elections.
Citizens are granted decision-making power in Congressional elections. But in Presidential elections, that power is granted to state legislatures and state law alone.
A fifty state solution is precisely the solution the Framers came up with. If it’s a bad idea, anend the Constitution. Don’t use the Supreme Court to railroad your ideas of what good policy is.
I wasn't suggesting that the SC do anything of the sort. I was just pointing out the contradiction of thinking a 50-state solution to a problem of presidential elections is "a terrible idea" given that it is, as you say, "precisely the solution the Framers came up with." Well, to be fair, they probably didn't imagine there ever being 50 states, when they started with 13.
+1
Yeah I thought that was weird, especially for the States Rights! conservatives, especially with the Independent State Legislature as such a fresh fracas.
Federalism is almost always used by partisans in bad faith. It only applies when the state action in question meets with their approval.
Justice Sotomayor suggested a very narrow ground for ruling.... Section 3 cannot be enforced against any elected federal officials–members of Congress and the President–absent federal legislation. That narrow holding would resolve the case now.
If SCOTUS can get behind that 9-0, I would like to give Justice Sotomayor a huge hug. That would also effectively end this divisive issue for the country.
If there were only something in the text of the amendment that would support that distinction. I sure don't see it. Not that such considerations ever stopped SCOTUS before.
Justice Sotomayor stated the issue neatly: "Can states enforce the Insurrection Clause against their own office holders, or can they enforce it against federal officials, or can they enforce it against the president? Those are all three different questions in my mind."
But then you only go on to talk about two of them, state officials and federal officials, and not the third critical one: the president, for which Trump is a candidate. That’s the one that matters.
Why did Sotomayor separate the president from other federal officials? Because of the Electors clause. The Colorado SG was the best at articulating this point. However much Term Limits and horrible parades might make one skeptical of letting states enforce Section Three against federal officials generally, that all goes out the window for presidental candidates since the whole concept of a “presidential election” is a creature of the states.
That’ll be hard to work around. A state could pass a law saying “Trump gets no electoral votes for no reason” but not one resulting in Trump getting no electoral votes due to Section Three? That’s just weird.
Not to mention that it leaves the resolution of Section Three to Jan 6 which I don’t think really works in the context of presidents.
The problem with the case is that the Colorado solicitor general didn’t press her best argument when offered the chance.
There is no legitimate basis for applying Thornton to presidential elector appointments. The whole basis of Thornton was that the constitution gives the right to elect members of Congress to the citizenry alone, so state legislatures and state law cannot interfere with that grant.
But that same Constitution gives the right to appoint presidential electors to state legislatures alone. When state legislatures set criteria for appointment, they are exercising the power the constitution grants to THEM.
It’s rediculous, absurd, to suggest a case involving state legislatures interfering with an explicit grant of power elsewhere, to citizens, can somehow be twisted into an argument that state legislatures can’t interfere with a constitutional grant of power to THEM – their own power! How can it be possible to argue, how can it make any logical sense to claim, that a case saying state legislatures can’t steal something that belongs to others can somehow be said to mean that they can’t steal from THEMSELVES, something that belongs to THEM?
Applying Thornton to anything outside Congressional elections – to any case other than one where citizens have an express constitutional right to elect people to an office – is absurd on its face.
Why doesn’t Thornton apply to judges? Supreme Court justices at least are truly national offices. For many years, the ABA was assigned a right to determine if a candidate was “qualified,” and a President couldn’t nominate an “unqualified” candidate. How can that be consistent with Thornton? How, consistent with the Thornton, can the ABA or anyone impose any qualification for a truly national office other than those imposed by the Constitution? (There are NO constitutional qualifications for Supreme Court justice). Isn’t this sort of gatekeeping exactly what Thornton forbids?
Moreover, while Presidents doubtless have the same power as state legislatures to make the appointments themselves, how can they, consistent with Thornton, delegate any part of their power to any part of the citizenry without delegating all to the whole? It’s all well and good if Presidents make judicial appointments themselves. But if they delegate any of that power to any of the citizenry, as Presidents did when they gave the ABA a veto power over judicial candidates, doesn’t Thornton mean must delegate all to all? No halfsies ought to mean no halfsies. If state legislatures must choose between doing the appointing themselves entirely or washing their hands of everything and letting the citizens do all, how can partial or hybrid options be permitted to Presidents?
After all, Presidential nomination and senatorial confirmation could easily be made as pro-forma a ceremonial process to ratify a choice actually made by a popular election as the electoral college is today. Today’s oral argument strongly suggests that Thornton applies to ALL truly national positions. And if it does, then what is true of state legislatures for presidential electors must also be true of presidents for justices. Once they delegate even a small part of their appointment power to even a small part of the citizenry, they must let it all go and delegate all of it to the citizenry as a whole.
Or is it just a question of words? If the Colorado legislature had used some other term than “election” to describe its process by which it delegates some but not all of its presidential elector appointment power to the citizenry, would the Supreme Court accept it? So long as it doesn’t use the magic word “election,” can it then do whatever the hell it wants?
I was also disappointed by the general presumption, on all sides, that Term Limits applied.
You're never as clever as you think you are. The ABA has never been delegated any power with judicial appointments. And "election" isn't a "magic word." It's a substantive event. Judges (federal ones, I mean) aren't elected. Presidents are.
Until George W. Bush, the ABA had an official role.
https://scholarship.law.wm.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1344&context=wmborj
And if once they delegate power to citizens, state legislatures can’t take it back, why should Presidents be any different?
Chiafolo totally belies that claim. Chiafolo permits something the constitution expressly calls an “election” to be held with a single candidate on the ballot and electors subject to imprisonment if they attempt to vote for anybody else. That’s what Chiafolo says. I completely agree an election is a substantive event. However, in Presidential elections, state legislatures have such total control over the process that elections and electors are essentially their puppets.
You know, the Josh Blackman show can be funny at times.
It’s “originalism, originalism, originalism, originalism, originalism…” Over and over again until your guard is down.
And then all of a sudden, like right here, you get a whopper of a policy argument. Not even pretending to be anything other than a policy argument. What the framers said to do is just bad policy. And we obviously can’t do bad policy, can we?
I mean, the Presidency is a national office. It’s obviously a federal thing. Leaving how to appoint presidential electors up to every podunk state legislature would make no policy sense. I mean, it might lead to our guy losing, and we can’t have THAT, can we?
So if the original meaning of the constitution leads to an inconvenient result, fuck the original meaning of the constitution. Text shmext. Originalism smigionalism. You don’t think we actually BELIEVE any of that bullshit legal mumbo-jumbo we spiel if it leads to an outcome different from the one we want, do you?
That’s not Josh-specific. All originalists, even Thomas, only find originalism as useful as it aligns with their policy preferences.
They’ve practically defined it that way (see e.g. Bruen).
Alot of bedwetting about this, after beating the drum for months that the Colorado ruling was constitutionally sound. Now about to be defeated 9-0.
How humiliating for all of you.
You are obviously unable to even pretend an ability to refute the argument he made. How humiliating for you.
It's really not.
9-0...
https://www.ca10.uscourts.gov/sites/ca10/files/opinions/01018907241.pdf
To quote Neil Gorsuch's circuit judge decision against Hassan, who wished to run for the Presidency of the United States: "we expressly reaffirm here, a state's legitimate interest in protecting the integrity and practical functioning of the political process permits it to exclude from the ballot candidates who are constitutionally prohibited from assuming office."