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Prof. Marty Lederman (Georgetown) on Trump v. Anderson: "Two Important Things All the Parties Get Wrong, …"
"and One Other Important Thing They Don’t Address."
The post (at Balkinization) is here; as I've mentioned before, I haven't studied the issues in this case closely enough to speak to this myself, but Prof. Lederman is a leading constitutional expert, and his thoughts struck me as much worth passing along:
1. Colorado Is Not "Enforcing" or "Implementing" Section 3.
The briefs of all four of the parties in the Supreme Court (and those of many amici, as well) proceed on the assumption, articulated repeatedly in their briefs, that if Colorado were to omit Donald Trump's name from its presidential primary ballot—something that, as I explain in this post, Colorado has not in fact done and is unlikely to do—the state would acting to "enforce" or "implement" Section 3 of the Fourteenth Amendment. Indeed, some of the parties' arguments take this as a jumping-off point, and depend upon it.
But it's wrong. Colorado isn't purporting to "enforce" Section 3, and states don't have any power to enforce its disqualification directive with respect to federal officers.
To be sure, a state has the power to enforce Section 3 with respect to state officers who are subject to Section 3's disqualification rule. Relevant state officials or courts with statutory or state constitutional authority, for example, can refuse to appoint a Section-3-disqualified person, or remove such a person from office. And, if state law prescribes it, a state legislature might be able to remove state legislators, as well as other state officers by way of impeachment, etc.
But a state does not have any legal authority—nor, to my knowledge, has any state ever claimed such power—to enjoin a disqualified federal official from holding office, or to remove him or her from such office….
Once one understands that Colorado is simply enforcing its own state-law rule prescribing exclusion of ineligible candidates from primary election ballots for purposes of state election management—a rule not confined to presidential candidates—one can see that Trump's argument that Colorado is imposing an additional "qualification" for Trump to hold office (according to Trump, Colorado has effectively required a candidate not to be subject to Section 3 ineligibility at the time of the primary election rather than on January 20, 2025) rests upon a category error: By declaring that candidates for President may not appear on its presidential primary ballot unless they meet certain conditions (including apparent eligibility to hold the office), Colorado is no more imposing extraconstitutional "qualifications" on persons holding that national office than Virginia did in 2012 when it excluded Rick Perry from its presidential primary ballot because he failed to timely submit the necessary number of voter signatures. See Perry v. Judd, 471 F. App'x 219 (4th Cir. 2012). (I pulled that example from Derek Muller's excellent amicus brief.)
2. Colorado Also is Not (Yet) Exercising Its Authority Under Article I's "Electors" Clause
One of Trump's arguments (see Part V of his brief) is that the Colorado Supreme Court violated the Electors Clause of the U.S. Constitution, Art. I, § 1, cl. 2, which requires states to appoint presidential electors "in such Manner as the Legislature thereof may direct," by misreading Colorado law to require exclusion of Trump's name from the presidential primary ballot. Somewhat surprisingly, the Anderson plaintiffs appear to accept this framing, insisting (at page 46 of their brief) that the Electors Clause "gives the states 'far-reaching authority' to run presidential elections, 'absent some other constitutional constraint'" (quoting Chiafalo v. Washington, 140 S. Ct. 2316, 2324 (2020)) (emphasis added). Secretary of Griswold likewise implies (Br. at 25) that Colorado is exercising its "far-reaching" Electors Clause authority here, and several amicus briefs do the same.
The Anderson plaintiffs have misquoted Chiafalo. The Chiafalo Court did not say that Article I, section 1, clause 2 gives the states "far-reaching authority" "to run presidential elections" such as the primary election currently ongoing in Colorado. The Court wrote, instead, that "Article II, § 1's appointments power gives the States far-reaching authority over presidential electors, absent some other constitutional constraint." 120 S. Ct. at 2324 (emphasis added). By replacing the words "over presidential electors" with "to run presidential elections," the plaintiffs' brief misleadingly implies that the U.S. Constitution empowers the states to run presidential primary elections. But it doesn't. And this case involves a primary election ballot….
3. Whether and How the Supreme Court's Decision Could Affect the Content of Colorado Ballots in 2024
In my first substantive post in this series, I suggested that the case might be moot unless the U.S. Supreme Court is persuaded that its decision could possibly affect the content of the primary election ballot in Colorado—or at least the state's general election ballot in November. As I read the state supreme court's judgment and the Colorado Election Code, it's not clear to me how the Supreme Court's decision could make any difference at all on any Colorado ballots, particularly because the statute upon which the state supreme court relied to establish a governmental authority to strike from the primary ballot the names of unqualified candidates for federal office does not, best I can tell, apply to the general election….
If you're at all interested in the subject, read the whole post.
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Colorado isn't purporting to "enforce" Section 3, and states don't have any power to enforce its disqualification directive with respect to federal officers.
This is why I think we should generally be using the term "unqualified" rather than "disqualified" to describe Trump's candidacy relative to Colorado.
The 14th Amendment uses the term, "disability".
Exactly. Which raises an interesting question.
Assume Lederman is right and Colorado isn't "enforcing" Section 3, it's just enforcing its own ballot access laws to bar an "unqualified" candidate. In that case, it could be argued that Trump hasn't been enforced against and therefore bears no "disability" for Congress to lift.
In that reading, if Trump is never elected in the first place, he can never be "disqualified," and therefore can't have his "disability" "removed."
I'm not really a fan of this reading... but it is a possible place you end up if SCOTUS says that Section 3 isn't self-executing and remands, and then Colorado comes back with "well we're not purporting to execute it, just to exercise our ballot access discretion" and keeps Trump off anyway. Congress isn't able to directly override Colorado's ballot access discretion.
I'm supremely confident this isn't going to end in too-clever land, no matter the tortured path you may choose to get there.
Lederman:
Is there a legally meaningful distinction between “enforce” and “encompass”? That is for example assuming 14.3 is not self-executing, can Colorado “encompass” 14.3 even though it can’t “enforce” it?
Good question.
What?
Encompass means include, not enforce. The question makes no sense, much less is good.
Can Colorado "include" 14.3 as the basis for leaving Trump off the ballot if 14.3 is not self-executing (presumably it can't do so if it were "enforcing" 14.3)?
Include in what?
Huh? According to Lederman, Colorado encompassed (what you say is included) 14.3 into the decision to disqualify Trump from the primary ballot.
You are not speaking English.
You could mean 'relied on' but that's not what encompass means.
It's also not what the sentence under discussion means.
The sentence you're spinning off about parses as: 'to read ‘qualified’ not to include federal constitutional qualifications would undermine...'
You're not speaking grammatical English and it's pretty strange.
Let's try again.
According to Lederman, the Colorado Supreme Court held that in order to comply with the Colorado Constitution, the determination of whether a presidential candidate is "qualified" (under Colorado law) to be placed on the primary ballot must include a determination of whether that candidate is disqualified under 14.3. If 14.3 is not self-executing, can Colorado deem a candidate is not qualified based solely on being disqualified by 14.3?
Lederman appears to say "yes" because Colorado is merely using 14.3 as the basis for enforcing the state constitution, and not enforcing 14.3. Because 14.3 is the sole reason that Trump is not allowed on the ballot, that strikes me as hyper-formalistic to the point of absurdity. In effect, Colorado is enforcing 14.3.
Cool! This means we can revisit term limits: We're just regulating ballot access when we don't let incumbent members of Congress have their names on the ballot, not adding a qualification for office!
The Lederman argument only works for President, not Congress.
Then all you need is a state deciding that one Presidential term is enough.
"That's a good...that's a good idea. I like that."
I'm not sure a state can add qualifications to those in the US Constitution for federal officers. Could a state decide that presidents should be at least 50? If the answer to that question is no, and I think it is, then how would that be different if it tries to impose a one-term limit when the Constitution permits two?
I think a state could decide to award no electors to candidates under 50. (Unless that were an equal protection violation.)
You are arguing like a frantic six-year-old, Mr. Bellmore, in the context of a problem you and your friends created with antisocial conduct.
Two minutes ago (literally!) I read this piece by Derek Muller on how the discussion has been framed primarily as a Section 3 debate rather than an election law debate. The two main (and successful) challenges in the recent past framed it as a matter of election law. https://electionlawblog.org/?p=141054
Under this reasoning, the Colorado Legislature could pass a law giving the Secretary of State the authority to find all Republicans ineligible for the ballot. The error is that the purported basis for the ineligibility is the Federal Constitution. Therefore, the claim is one under federal law. As far as I know, Colorado does not have an insurrection disqualification statute.
I think this is the crux of the matter.
The question is whether Trump qualifies for the Colorado ballot (either primary or general).
IOW, does Colorado state law allow, disallow, or require Trump's name on the ballot? Do the events of January 6 inform this analysis? And how is this determined within the election laws of Colorado?
There are millions of people who are not formally disqualified from holding office that nevertheless do not appear on the Colorado ballot.
"There are millions of people who are not formally disqualified from holding office that nevertheless do not appear on the Colorado ballot."
How many of those people are declared candidates for President of the United States?
If you're right, then the Colorado Supreme Court has final say on how to interpret Colorado state law. SCOTUS should have no say on the question.
One more tip. If you start your argument with "all the parties to the case gave missed something", you're the mark.
.
After being engaged as a subject matter specialist as a dispute headed to litigation, I once began a meeting with my client and the trial lawyer with something similar to that.
It was among the most lucrative and satisfying victories of my legal career. After my client paid my fee and a premium, he treated me (with my wife) to a week-long stay in the best suite at one of Manhattan's best hotels, with drivers, shows, excursions, and dinner reservations (including a celebration dinner) throughout the week. It was the only time I can recall having a butler on call.
Other than that, though, great comment!
Or you're Copernicus. But you're probably the mark.
How long have you been practicing law?
"This isn't 14.3, just something very like it, but on the state level!"
Reminds me of a tax law, "This isn't an income tax. It's a tax proportional to income!"
Either it's 14.3 (problematic enough) or it's a state adding an unconstitutional qualification.
"Oh, no. It's like a state not letting a candidate on the ballot because he didn't file the paperwork in time!"
The National Firearms Act does not ban machine guns, it merely requires a tax stamp and coincidentally makes it almost impossible to get a tax stamp for a new machine gun.
bingo!!!
Once one understands that Colorado is simply enforcing its own state-law rule prescribing exclusion of ineligible candidates from primary election ballots for purposes of state election management…
This gives me a new theory that really, the Republican Party’s freedom of association is what’s being infringed by Colorado.
The state primaries aren’t directly related to the presidential election. The Republican nominee is completely up to the party to choose at the convention.
So why does a state get to have any discretion at all about who’s on a presidential primary ballot? It’s entirely a Republican Party matter.
The state Republican party has already said that, if Trump isn't allowed on the primary ballot, they're switching to a caucus system. So it's not going to effect the nomination. It's just a preliminary skirmish over the general election ballot.
State run primaries really are a mess, theoretically.
Originally parties ran them themselves. Then the major parties decided, "Hey, we control all the state governments! Let's offload this expense on the state, save ourselves some money!"
So, once the states were running the primaries, some bright guy got the idea of using ballot access to tell a party who their nominee could be. Usually the smaller party in the state...
The parties retained the option of ignoring the state run primary. Then some states decided that they'd only allow the winners of their own primaries onto the general election ballot, not even permit write in votes. That's why Republicans in California often are only allowed to pick between Democrats, they're forbidden to vote for members of their own party.
We've been sleep walking towards a system where voting doesn't matter, because the government only allows voting for the candidates it wants holding office, and won't permit you any way to vote for anybody they disapprove of.
That mis-states what happened, its always been the practice in some states to allow party members and unaffiliated voters to vote in primary elections, so of course voters registered to a party were locked in to which primary ballot they recieve, but unaffiliated voters could choose.
The GOP in WA and CA sued saying it violated their rights to allow unaffiliated voters to participate in candidate selection for their party.
They Won!!!! At least in the 9th circuit.
In response voters by initiative changed the primary system so that unaffiliated voters can vote for whoever they want, and to make sure the voters choices were controlling on the General election ballot.
However that does not apply to the Presidential ballot. If Haley wins the primary in California, and Trump is in 4th place, he will still be on the ballot in November as the National Parties candidate. Using a opinion two for the presidential ballot is as likely to screw the Dems as Republicans, in fact more likely.
It does not apply to the Presidential ballot yet. I said we're sleep walking towards that system, not that we're entirely there yet.
If a state such as California can say that only candidates who do well in their, (Not the party's own.) primary are allowed on the general election ballot for lower offices, they can do it for the Presidency, too. In fact, the legal case for them doing it for the Presidency would be stronger.
The key failure here was the Court abruptly changing course back in '92, and ruling that states could actually ban write in votes. They used to joke in Russia that it didn't matter who votes, it mattered who counted the votes.
Well, it doesn't matter who votes OR counts the votes, in the end. The only guy who matters is the one who can tell you who you can vote for. Once only people HE likes are available to vote for, what does it matter who you vote for?
I keep hammering on this: Until quite recently, the right to vote was the right to vote for anyone you damned well pleased. When we let that slip away?
Democracy was living on borrowed time.
Because the state runs the election for the parties? If the state party chose its nominees (or delegates to the national convention) at caucuses or a convention or in a smoke-filled room, then it wouldn't be up to the state.
Yeah, tell that to California. They seem to have other ideas.
California's earlier open primary system was struck down by the courts, and they went to a top-two system, which does require that the state run the primary elections. But state legislators from both parties voted for that system. Luckily, California also has initiatives that voters could impose changes through, unlike some other states with Republican legislatures and Democratic voters (the whole reason the "independent state legislature" theory gained traction).
I mean, I'm sure this has all been worked out and isn't new. Presidential primaries just seem like a weird nonsense anomaly.
It increases participation and puts the primary selection process on a more democratic footing; the Iowa caucuses in January disenfranchise people with disabilities who would be able to vote absentee in a conventional primary election. You do run into difficulties with crossover voters when one party's nomination is not in doubt; the results can be manipulated within a party in other ways (past practice with superdelegates). Ranked choice voting in a single election would be preferable.
I don't see how you could use ranked choice (or top-two) to allocate delegates from separate pools.
That's what makes the presidential primary so anomalous. It's pretty much a separate subcontracted election for each political party operated by the state. It doesn't have any impact on that state's general presidential election.
I was thinking of it as eliminating primaries. That would probably still be awkward with presidential elections. It would have the advantage of not fixing on a single candidate who might later turn out to have disqualifying (in a generic sense, like scandal or health problems) issues.
It also empowers the kooks.
"If the state party chose its nominees (or delegates to the national convention) at caucuses or a convention or in a smoke-filled room, then it wouldn’t be up to the state."
I don't know, man. The state government tells the TX LP exactly when the conventions (at all levels) will be held, specifies all the forms that will be used, and specifies many of the rules, including the qualifications to be a delegate or a nominee. In particular the law prohibits a party convention from even considering (exact word in the statute) anyone for nomination unless they have paid a nonrefundable filing fee to the secretary of state ($5K for US Senator this year, $3175 for congress, down to $375 for Justice of the Peace in a small county) and it has to be paid months before the convention, or before delegates are elected.
Let's just let each state legislature direct or governor decide who will be on the ballot in that state. Maybe there should be a lot more of this.
I definitely don't buy argument (1) and think it is kind of hackish.
The only reason Colorado is taking Trump off the ballot is because its election officials and Supreme Court think Section 3 requires it. If they concluded Section 3 did not requirement (such as because they thought Trump wasn't an officer or didn't engage in insurrection or whatever), they would have left him on the ballot.
So of course they are enforcing Section 3. Prof. Lederman can't be serious here.
Clearly they only dove into definitions of “engaging in” and “insurrection” as a matter of state election law and nothing to do with the Fourteenth Amendment! Oh, and they only put their own ruling on hold pending SCOTUS intervention because it’s clearly a state election law issue and not a federal question of constitutional interpretation!
Man, this case has really got the legal academia in a hissy.
They're not enforcing or implementing section 3 because they are not preventing him from holding office; they have no power to decide who becomes a federal officer. They are keeping him off the primary ballot in accordance with their law regarding who can be on the primary ballot, but that is because their courts have judged that section 3 would apply. It seems a slight distinction, but it is presumably aimed at arguments that Colorado is overreaching.
(Can Trump be a write-in candidate in the Colorado primary? Biden was not on the New Hampshire ballot because of New Hampshire's refusal to allow a different state to be first, but still won as a write-in.)
The CO supreme court also prohibited the state from counting write-in votes for him.
I can tell from the phrasing of your statement that you don't understand that Colorado Election Code prohibits it; they didn't just invent a fucking ruling out of thin air to ban specifically Trump as a write-in.
Here's the law you're ignorant of:
https://www.sos.state.co.us/pubs/info_center/laws/Title1/Title1Article7.html
I assume from the phrasing that Brett does understand it. He just doesn't want to say it.
I would disagree, because an honest response would say:
"Colorado law prohibits the counting of write-in ballots for someone who is not eligible for the position in question."
Brett is not honest.
State law was the basis for their ruling, that write in votes for him would not be counted was part of that ruling.
“Conclusion: … Therefore, the Secretary may not list President Trump’s name on the 2024 presidential primary ballot, nor may she count any write-in votes cast for him.”
Don’t be so anal when all I’m doing is correcting somebody’s mistake.
Besides, you know as well as anyone that just being in the election code doesn't mean squat, if a state supreme court isn't in the mood to allow a provision of state law to be enforced. So that clause only mattered because of the ruling.
Not to quibble, but I asked a question; I had no idea or opinion of what the answer would or should be. Thanks for answering.
The Colorado Supreme Court did not rule or decide or anything else related to whether write-in votes for Trump can count.
They determined that he was ineligible for the office. State law did the rest on its own.
I'm with Dilan.
However, Lederman also says there is no Colorado statute that permits Trump to be left off the general election ballot. If Colorado courts conclude there is no authority (statutory or otherwise) to keep Trump of the general election ballot, then it might be reasonable to conclude leaving him off only the primary ballot doesn't enforce 14.3. On the other hand, leaving him off only the primary ballot is a bizarre result that makes little sense.
It affects only the selection of convention delegates for the party, while leaving a major party candidate off the general election ballot would skew things nationally. Colorado might reasonably decide that, if a candidate excluded from its primary is chosen nationally, it should not interfere with that. For Colorado-only elections, excluding someone from the primary should exclude them from the general election.
I agree with Dilan actually. Must be Groundhog Day!
It might not be hackish, but it is puntish.
It would be possible to rule solely on the basis of Lederman's post claiming primary access isn't a federal question, and the section 3 argument isn't ripe. Possible that is if they wanted to punt on the issue, but obviously they don't, otherwise they would have scheduled oral arguments for April or May and lifted the stay as to the primary ballot.
This court has an election law doctrine that while courts can't stay out of elections entirely, they do have to act far enough in advance to ensure time for local and state officials to conduct an orderly election.
“Once one understands that Colorado is simply enforcing its own state-law rule prescribing exclusion of ineligible candidates from primary election ballots for purposes of state election management—a rule not confined to presidential candidates…”
Colorado Supreme Court: “Why yes, our interpretation of the scope of state law does let an administrator disqualify a federal-only candidate, but that doesn’t mean we’re letting them disqualify the candidate based “on” the federal law, but only on the administrator’s “reading” of the federal law, as it applies to state law. So, nothing to see here. Move along.”
Yelp.
No. He's saying that they aren't enforcing 14.3 because 14.3 is silent on the question raised, whether Trump is eligible to appear on the Colorado primary ballot.
My intuition is that something "self-executing" can have that quality only because there can be no dispute about whether one is infringing upon it. That is, self-executing is the flip side of self-evident.
You shouldn't trust your intuition. It's got problems.
I love this response. It’s the entire gestalt of the negative influence of the Internet in eight simple words.
There can always be a dispute. I'm not sure that criterion would work.
Perhaps Lederman has a point, and the application of state law is not a topic the Supreme Court has authority to rule on.
Here is basically what the COSC held:
1. The CO SOS properly applied CO law in removing Trump from the primary ballot.
2. Section 3 is Self Executing.
3. President is covered under Section 3.
4. The President is an insurrectionist.
5. The Jan. 6th committee report is sufficient evidence to base an insurrection charge.
So take #1 off the table, well as far as it doesn’t conflict with federal law.
But #2,3,4,5 are on the table, and are enough basis to reverse and remand and make it clear whether or not states can disqualify Trump from the ballot, primary or general, based on the US Constitution and Federal law.
The Colorado GOP has already taken steps to use Caucuses as a basis of selecting their delegates to the GOP nominating convention, so the CO primary isn’t that big a deal.
But settling the question about section 3 is ripe, and the CO court should be commended for teeing up the issue for the Supreme Court in time to settle the matter for the General Election.
Did they really rule on #2? I don't think Colorado thought that they were "enforcing" Section 3 on behalf of the feds.
It's also not entirely clear how SCOTUS could reach #5.
From the opinion:
Huh. That sort of undermines Lederman's theory, don't you think?
I suspect Lederman would counter the Colorado Supreme Court went beyond what states are permitted to do. I find his argument unavailing.
Seems like it would require Colorado to agree with him, which it seems like they probably don't.
#5: IIRC, the Jan 6 report led to a second impeachment, of which the Senate did not convict. So SCOTUS maybe can reply, "you didn't put the disability on him, and you could have. That was your one chance. Now we're getting back to Chevron deference, so go away."
That would be... odd. But if they're looking for a way out, it's probably better than "not self-executing" and maybe better than "not an officer" which would make it their best option...?
It would turn removing the Section 3 disability from 2/3 of Congress to anything less than 2/3 of the Senate. Many of the votes against convicting him were because he was out of office already, dodging the question. Republicans in Congress are too cowardly to do anything about Trump, so the "it's too soon to litigate; let Congress decide he's disqualified" punt would just lead to Republicans in Congress punting with "it's too late because the voters have decided".
One could always charge and convict him of insurrection under federal law. Or Congress could reinstate something like the quo warranto process from the Enforcement Act of 1870, for a civil process. Those don't require any fraction of the Senate to agree on whether Trump is an insurrectionist.
Charging and convicting Trump of insurrection under federal law wouldn't disqualify him from the presidency.
I think it would, if the court decides the President is an officer of the United States, and the Presidency is an office under the United States of course.
It certainly would answer the question of whether he is an insurrectionist.
It certainly would answer the question of whether he is an insurrectionist.
Maybe informally, but not to the satisfaction of Section 3. The crime is defined so much more broadly in the statute than the criteria of Section 3 that you wouldn't be able to infer that Section 3 was satisfied just from a conviction for insurrection. You can be convicted for insurrection without having "engaged" in insurrection.
"Maybe informally"
That's precisely backwards. A conviction for insurrection would answer the question formally.
"You can be convicted for insurrection without having “engaged” in insurrection."
I think that's kind of dubious. You can't be convicted of insurrection without having done SOMETHING related to the insurrection. And it's a bit of a stretch to claim that Section 3 wouldn't have applied to Jefferson Davis because he just ordered the Confederate army to attack, he never fired a gun in battle.
I don't think "engaged in" is limited to pitched battle. Though equally I think it needs something more than somebody else doing a bit of insurrection based on your political rhetoric.
Or else, as I've said before, we need to start cleaning out the halls of Congress, there are a lot of insurrectionist Donkeys in Congress.
So, you still haven't read the statute that you're always pontificating about? Well let me help you out.
Whoever incites, sets on foot, assists, or engages in any rebellion or insurrection against the authority of the United States or the laws thereof...
So Brett, is it your contention that someone who incites an insurrection also engages in an insurrection? What about someone who sets the insurrection on foot, or assists it? If all those activities count as engaging in the insurrection, why are they listed out? They don't add anything, since "engages" is already in the list.
Do you have an example of anyone who was convicted of insurrection and then became a member of Congress, an officer under the United States, or an elector of the president or vice president? I don't count Victor Burger, who Congress refused to seat until the Supreme Court vacated his conviction (for espionage).
Well here are the Colorado Courts bullet point holdings in full unaltered from the decision: We hold as follows:
• The Election Code allows the Electors to challenge President Trump’s status as a qualified candidate based on Section Three. Indeed, the Election Code provides the Electors their only viable means of litigating whether President Trump is disqualified from holding office under Section Three.
• Congress does not need to pass implementing legislation for Section Three’s disqualification provision to attach, and Section Three is, in that sense, self-executing.
• Judicial review of President Trump’s eligibility for office under Section Three is not precluded by the political question doctrine. Section Three encompasses the office of the Presidency and someone who has taken an oath as President. On this point, the district court committed reversible error.
• The district court did not abuse its discretion in admitting portions of Congress’s January 6 Report into evidence at trial.
• The district court did not err in concluding that the events at the U.S.Capitol on January 6, 2021, constituted an “insurrection.”
• The district court did not err in concluding that President Trump “engaged in” that insurrection through his personal actions.
• President Trump’s speech inciting the crowd that breached the U.S.Capitol on January 6, 2021, was not protected by the First Amendment.
There is a missing bullet point and line break for the 4th bullet point:
"Section Three encompasses the office of the Presidency and someone who has taken an oath as President. On this point, the district court committed reversible error."
But just to recap, my initial 5 point summarization, from memory by the way I last read the decision weeks ago, is a pretty faithful recitation of what the court held, and all but the first item in both lists (I even got the order mostly right), are federal questions.
Ah but that is clarifying. It seems that the first and second bullets work together. That is, Section Three is self-executing... with respect to Electors' ability to challenge Trump's qualifications.
In other words, notably, none of the holdings is "Trump is disqualified under Section Three." Really they're saying that Trump could be disqualified by the Electors. And because of that, Colorado doesn't want to put him on the ballot.
That makes SCOTUS's job a little bit more challenging.
I think they did conclude that:
"The district court did not err in concluding that President Trump “engaged in” that insurrection through his personal actions."
Plus
"Congress does not need to pass implementing legislation for Section Three’s disqualification provision to attach, and Section Three is, in that sense, self-executing."
Equals
“Trump is disqualified under Section Three.”
I don’t think that quite works. It’s missing this:
“The Election Code [or, more likely, some state law authority] allows the Colorado SOS to adjudicate Trump’s status as a qualified candidate based on Section Three.”
In other words, it’s not enough for Section 3 to be self-executing in a vacuum. You still need an official who’s been authorized to apply Section 3. The holdings you quoted identify the Electors as that official, not the Colorado SOS.
It even not-quite-but-almost suggests that the Electors are uniquely situated to enforce Section 3:
Indeed, the Election Code provides the Electors their only viable means of litigating whether President Trump is disqualified from holding office under Section Three.
You misunderstand what the court is saying, the "Electors" in this case are the Colorado voters that sued the SOS, saying the SOS had to take Trump off the ballot.
The relief the voters or electors are asking for is for the court to order the SOS to keep Trump off the ballot and that's what they did:
"Therefore, the Secretary may not list President
Trump’s name on the 2024 presidential primary ballot, nor may she count any write-in votes cast for him."
The court says it is authorized to apply section 3 and it did, they then ordered the SOS to implement their decision.
Oh sorry yes, that makes much more sense.
Lederman also brings up the possibility that the Colorado case is moot because 1) there is not sufficient time to take Trump's name off the ballot (overseas ballots have already been mailed out and people can already make an in-person request for a ballot they will mail in), and 2) there is no state statute authorizing his name to be removed from the general election ballot (Lederman says SCOTUS could ask the Colorado Secretary of State or Colorado Supreme Court for clarification on that issue, and if the answer is Trump can be kept off, the case is not moot).
I kind of wonder whether Lederman has other concerns in mind, rather than the law, in laying out a case for punting and not settling the issue once and for all now?
Obviously the Supreme Court is well practiced at punting on issues that "are not yet ripe" for adjudication, and Section 3 is admittedly pretty green fruit. But some action is needed now or the whole crop could get spoiled.
It can't be moot because not only did the CO Supreme Court order the SOS to remove Trump from the ballot, they also ordered the SOS not to count any votes for him.
If SCOTUS dismisses the case as moot because the primary ballots have gone out, without vacating the decision, then Trumps votes won't be counted.
So its definitely not moot, it has to be upheld or reversed, or at the very least stayed until the results are certified.
I think the Colorado Supreme Court only held that write-in votes for Trump won't count. The vast majority of Trump's votes will still count if 1) SCOTUS affirms the decision below and 2) Trump's name remains on the ballot because time ran out to remove it.
The issue I have with regards to Section 3 being applied to the Colorado primary is that whatever you think about arguments related to if Section 3 applies to elections for President, the Colorado primary isn't voting for, nor electing, a President.
The actual primary election is for choosing a slate of delegates for the Republican party, not for the decision of the electoral college (or House of Representatives) about who they will elect President. You might just as well prohibit Republicans in Colorado from running for Congress because they state they plan to vote for Trump in the event there is an electoral college tie.
So on your 5 points:
1. Trump isn't on a primary ballot as a candidate for President, but as a candidate to have his chosen delegates selected by the Republican Party. That's what is actually being voted on.
2-5 = completely irrelevant, as the Colorado primary isn't for electing the President. The electoral college holds that election. Maybe they have a case if someone proposed an actual insurrectionist for service in the electoral college.
Its hardly a controversial proposition that any misapplication of the federal constitution or federal law is reviewable by federal courts, especially when it results in due process or equal protection violations, which it does if they relied on Section 3.
Can the Colorado court bar Nikki Haley from the ballot? Indisputably No. So what's different about her case? She isn't alleged to disqualified under section 3. So it is the application, or misapplication of section 3 at the heart of the case, and is ripe for review by the court.
If Colorado had a law stating no one disqualified by Section 3 can get a liquor license in Colorado, the issues wouldn't change, Trump would still be able to sue because they are violating his due process and equal protection rights based on misapplication of federal law.
God Almighty, will it never end?
Yes. At some point Trump will die of old age and this will finally be over. The question is, assuming his health holds up, will he run again in 2028 if he loses this November?
No. I think even he will have had enough.
In terms of what's actually best for the GOP I
almostthink it would be best for the GOP from the bottom to the top of the ticket to disqualify Trump.Trump can rail against the decision, and the backstabbers on the court, then move on eventually and endorse a candidate everyone can coalesce around, then all the anger of the base, the relief of the never Trumpers, and the Biden fatigue sweep in GOP control in all three houses.
Of course that would require Trump to realize his own self interest in getting behind a candidate rather than lead an election boycott that gives the Dems a clean sweep.
I think it would have been best for the GOP if Trump had had the sense to retire and let the next generation carry on the battle. But he's too much of a narcissist to retire.
The problem with saying that they'd be better off if Trump were disqualified, is that a tactic that works isn't going to be abandoned, and the GOP can't casually accept that Democrats can veto its choice of candidate.
Well you have a point about that, if Trump is disqualified this cycle is Jim Jordon out for '28, was DeSantis sufficiently Trump supportive after the election to be similarly disqualified?
.
More important, at some point the Republican Party's dwindling band of uneducated, antisocial, un-American, half-educated, superstitious bigots will be crammed into a handful of desolate states (maybe West Virginia, Oklahoma or Kansas, Mississippi, and Idaho) and better Americans will ignore them (except when those clingers need a leash, or a yank on a leash).
Somewhere around Nov 2024 – Jan 2025, at best.
Professor Volokh: is there a hidden res judicata/full faith and credit issue here. If Trump loses on the issue of "insurrection," in one place, can issue preclusion be used against him across states? What about federal full faith and credit statute?
I can't see that full faith and credit has any bearing on any aspect of the decision. Colorado isn't ruling on any other states ballot, nor are any of their holdings binding in any other states procedings.
If the Colorado Supreme Court ruling is upheld, Donald Trump could conceivably be subject to nonmutual offensive collateral estoppel by proponents of disqualification in other states on the issue of whether Trump engaged in insurrection. I think that would depend on the law of the forum state where a challenge is brought.
So...assuming that correctly deciding a point of state law depends on a correct interpretation of federal law...can the U. S. Supreme Court help out the state courts in such situations?
"So…assuming that correctly deciding a point of state law depends on a correct interpretation of federal law…can the U. S. Supreme Court help out the state courts in such situations?"
Bush v. Palm Beach County Canvassing Board, 531 U.S. 70 (2000), suggests the answer is yes.
Thanks!
In other Trump lawfare news:
-The judge in his DC trial has postponed the trial because the pretrial prep isn't completed, due to a pending appeal.
-The Bragg trial will probably moved into the scheduling void.
-Fani Willis admitted she had a personal relationship, but claimed, without evidence, that they split expenses "fairly evenly" and entered a motion for the judge to cancel his 2/15 hearing on the matter.
To clarify, the Willis court filing includes evidence that they split expenses (see Exhibit 4) but without further evidence of a fairly even split.
So they have billable hours for fornication?
Well, he apparently did bill for 24 hours of work one day. Maybe that was the day. My first thought was that, sure, it was a marketing cost. Likely more pleasant than much of the time I was marketing myself as an attorney. Made the guy a lot of money: ~ $650k. But I don’t remember actually billing a customer I was marketing to for the time I spent doing it.
Eh, I think the situation stinks to high Heaven, but he didn't bill for 24 hours of work in one day. He billed, on one day, for 24 hours of work. Not the same thing, because there was no claim all the work had been that day, it was just the day he finished that task.
"Fani Willis admitted she had a personal relationship, but claimed, without evidence, that they split expenses 'fairly evenly' and entered a motion for the judge to cancel his 2/15 hearing on the matter."
The assertion that the State's response is "without evidence" is demonstrably false. It is supported by the affidavit of Nathan Wade, which is sworn on personal knowledge of the facts recited therein. s3.documentcloud.org/documents/24401470/da-office-rseponse-to-roman-motion-to-disqualify-020224-exhibits-removed.pdf The response reportedly is 176 pages in length, so I surmise it includes other documentation which is not reproduced in the pdf document that I link to.
Kazinski appears not to care whether he tells the truth or not.
Well actually I was just mocking you, not lying.
If you want to mock someone, point out that he lives in an off-the-grid hermit shack like a worthless, bigoted, Kaczynski-like misfit and . . . Oops, sorry.
Of course, there's no need to "surmise" when the Wade declaration explicitly names the attached exhibits removed from the copy in your link:
Ex. 1: Newspaper articles about cases Wade was supposedly involved in.
Ex. 2: Various "top X lawyer" awards that everyone who's been in the legal industry for more than a few years understands often result from ballot stuffing, pay for play, or luck of the draw, and mean next to nothing.
Ex. 3: His invoices as special prosecutor (presumably the same ones we've already seen).
Ex. 4: Examples of Willis paying travel expenses for both of them.
That's it. The vast majority of the exceptionally carefully-worded statements in the affidavit (including the ones that actually go to the heart of the issues relevant to the conflict allegations) appear to have no support at all beyond Wade's bare word.
.
How long have you been in the legal industry. Would you say you have been accomplished in that field?
No offense intended, Artie -- I did say "often." I'm sure your back-to-back "Over-the-Hill Bitter Troll" awards over the past several years were completely on the merits.
Yea blah blah blah. Save it. You can't kick him off the ballot period. I used to think this will end when say Texas kicks Biden off the ballot but we all know that that will be treated (D)ifferently.
What kind of cast Democratic judicial conspiracy do you think is going on? Is the SCOTUS full of Democratic plants?
Or are you just reflexively 'it's not fair' tantruming?