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Taxes on Wealth and on Unrealized Capital Gains Are Unconstitutional
Moore v. United States: The big tax case before SCOTUS this year.
In Moore v. United States, the Supreme Court will decide this year whether the Ninth Circuit was right in upholding as constitutional taxes on unrealized capital gains and wealth taxes. Ed Meese, Gary Lawson, and I have written an amicus brief filed by Philip Williamson urging the Supreme Court to overrule the Ninth Circuit on both points. Our brief presents the original public meaning of the Sixteenth Amendment and of the requirement that direct taxes be apportioned among the States. We urge the Supreme Court to ignore bad caselaw and to stick to the original public meaning of the constitutional text.
The Sixteenth Amendment authorizes Congress to tax "incomes, from whatever source derived" without apportionment among the states. Unrealized capital gains are neither "incomes" nor "derived" within the original meaning of the Amendment. Both popular and legal dictionaries from the years around the ratification of the Sixteenth Amendment confirm that point. So does the amendment's context. and the Supreme Court's near-contempraneous decision in Eisner v. Macomber. All evidence demonstrates that the original meaning of the Sixteenth Amendment is the commonsense one: realization is a precondition for income; money must come into the hands of a taxpayer in order to be taxable "income."
The Ninth Circuit took a different, unprecedented view. The court of appeals concluded that realization is not a precondition for income, and so the Moores could be taxed on unrealized gains in wealth. That rationale is not limited to the Moores, or to the particular tax, which the court applied in their case. Rather, under the Ninth Circuit's analysis, investors might be taxed on their unrealized capital gains in their Vanguard funds or their stock portfolios. Moreover, homeowners might be taxed on their unrealized capital gains in their houses and land. The Ninth Circuit is the only federal court of appeals to so hold. The Supreme Court should reverse the Ninth Circuit and restore the original, commonsense meaning of the Sixteenth Amendment.
The American Revolution of 1776 started as a tax revolt. The Framers at Philadelphia knew that a constitution, which gave Congress the power to enact a general wealth tax would never have been ratified. So the Framers gave Congress a general power to levy indirect "Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises," but expressly forbade direct taxes unless they were apportioned among the states according to the census.
The Framers correctly anticipated that indirect duties, imposts, and excises would be the preferred route for federal taxation because there is always an element of voluntariness when one buys an imported good which is subject to a tariff, pays a sales tax on the purchase of a commodity, pays a use or excise tax on a luxury item like a carriage, or pays a gift or an inheritance tax by giving property. The taxpayer can always avoid the federal tax by not buying an imported good or an item subject to a sales tax, by not using a carriage, or by not making a gift or will. A tax on unrealized capital gains is not a tax on a transaction initiated by the taxpayer. It is essentially a wealth tax, which is precisely the kind of head or capitation tax for which the Constitution requires apportionment.
A tax on the Moores' unrealized gain in wealth cannot be considered an indirect duty, impost, or excise. Rather, it is a direct tax. And that requires an apportionment among the several states according to the census, unless excused from apportionment by the Sixteenth Amendment—which it is not.
For these reasons, the direct tax assessed on the Moores' unrealized capital gains is unconstitutional.
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There’s a gloss on this I’d like to see addressed by people with more expertise than I: given modern practices, when does a realization event occur?
Specifically, if I have a million shares of stock that I got for a penny, that are now worth $100/share, I have a paper gain of $100M (minus a penny). It's unrealized. It could lose all value!
If I borrow $90M in cash and pledge the $100M value of the stock, it's not a realization event as I understand the current tax code.
So I've effectively obtained $90M income, tax free. This is a great tax dodge for folks like Elon Musk and Jeff Bezos.
Should pledging stock as collateral be considered a realized gain, because the value is functionally extracted?
Tax law is fun, complicated, and very very definitely skewed to advantage the ultra-rich.
Those who actually practice high-$$ tax law are most welcome to correct me here ...
"Tax law is fun, complicated, and very very definitely skewed to advantage the ultra-rich. "
Tax law is skewed to the advantage of the government.
There is no contradiction. The ultra-rich know that the government needs to be funded and they're quite happy lobbying - successfully - for that funding to minimise the impact on them.
What makes you say that? US income taxes are among the most progressive in the world, maybe at the very top.
https://www.21stcenturyalliance.org/post/the-world-s-most-progressive-income-tax
https://www.mercatus.org/research/data-visualizations/progressivity-taxes-oecd-countries-mid-2000s
Sure, but don't we also have one of the least generous social welfare systems among developed countries? I would be interested to know how all the taxes and benefits average out over different income groups. But even then, there are many benefits to government beyond what it pays out to people, so how would we quantify that?
"I would be interested to know how all the taxes and benefits average out over different income groups." If you really want to know, read "The Myth of American Inequality" by Gramm, Ekelund and Early.
This is a comment thread. Telling me to read a ~250 pg book to get the details I am looking for is not going to work. It looks like you're just presenting the book as an authority, rather than making your own argument based on your understanding of the topic. These kinds of political books, whether the subjects are economics, environmental science, medicine, education, or anything else, are polemical. The rigor and objectivity of them is highly variable regardless of the academic reputation of the authors within their fields.
You should start by at least summarizing what the book would say and maybe point to some data the book uses that is publicly available to convince me that it would be worth my time. Or, you could point to reviews of the book by economists with expertise in related sub-fields. Instead, you expect me to do all of the work to check an assertion made by someone else. If someone wants to change your mind, do you accept it when they tell you to do all of the work to change it?
You said you would be interested to know. You forgot to add you will only be interested if somebody else does all the work for you, ties it up in a pretty package and drops it in your lap. Sometimes acquiring knowledge requires removing butt from chair and fingers from keyboard.
You should start by at least summarizing what the book would say and maybe point to some data the book uses that is publicly available to convince me that it would be worth my time. Or, you could point to reviews of the book by economists with expertise in related sub-fields.
How is that asking you to do all the work for me, tying it up in a pretty package and dropping it in my lap?
What makes you say that?
The articles you cite do not make the point you think - and in both cases the omission of the data required to make the case must be regarded as deliberate, hence dishonest. You're not to be blamed for their dishonesty, but you can be blamed for your own statistical ignorance.
I'll give you another go at it, and if you still don't see it, I'll explain why you're an ignorant fool.
You are smart enough to know that all that shows is that income distribution is more heavily skewed in the US than other countries. (It's possible the US tax system is, in fact, extra progressive, but you'd have to look at income share versus tax share to actually be able to reason about this. The fact that these sources elect not to do this further analysis is a good sign that it probably ends up with a result that doesn't match their narrative.)
He may not be smart enough, but the writers of the two articles - one of whom is an occasional Reason.com contributor - are certainly smart enough, so the omission is both intentional and significant.
So, if they lose tax value --- are they permitted to get tax rebates based on that?
If you can be taxed on unrealized gains, I see no way to not refund based on unrealized losses.
As far as you take it yes you have 90M in loan proceeds with no tax obligation. But you have to pay interest on those funds and you have to repay them. You invest the funds in illiquid widgets. Lets say the stock drops to 90M and the lender sells your stock to pay the loan balance. You now have no stock and a tax bill of around 33 M ( more like 44 in California). Plus you still owe the Bank 10 Million.
If the lender forgave the loan that would be phantom income and you would still owe the tax.
Right. Borrowing against equity in collateral is NOT economically the same as selling the collateral or part of it. Borrowing entails additional obligations and risks that selling does not.
As both you and Gwegan point out, there are additional layers of complexity that cause valuation, interest costs, and legal complexities. But nonetheless, borrowing against hugely appreciated stock valuations is a tax avoidance strategy for the sooper-rich, with the general idea being that they get to have the economic benefit of the asset appreciation (yay!) while deferring the tax liability (boo!). Any maybe get to preserve stuff like step-up in basis for heirs, which again benefits the sooper-rich. But I'm not a tax attorney, I could be hand-waving here.
At the same time, a lot of people will recoil at the concept of taxing the appreciation of Absaroka's Beanie Baby investment (see below) that goes from $100 to $200. Understandable, since that investment is now worth about $22.
So, what if the dividing line is that declaration of an appreciated asset as collateral - which is the extraction of real economic value, in an arms-length transaction - constitutes a realization event for the asset for that declared value?
Foreseeable complication: a lot of people take home equity loans based on appreciated home value. That's also an extraction of economic value from an appreciated asset that a lot of people would hate to be taxed for.
Or maybe just accept that, in a large economy, tax deferral strategies average out.
yes, if the economy turns south and your assets drop than the loan will have proven a bad and risky move; however, as long as you are borrowing against diversified funds that keep going up, than the tax bill never really comes due. The truth is, income is a squishy and ways to avoid taxes on it are never ending. A usage tax, or some sort of VAT might be a way to assure that wealthy pay a bigger share of the countries tax burden.
No, when you borrowed the $90M, you received $90M in cash in exchange for $90M in debt. Your debt is collateralized against the stock but the debt and the stock both remain yours.
For a clearer example, you do not have to claim the value of your mortgage as income when you buy your house. Taking out a loan is simply not income.
The only way your hypothetical could be a "tax scam" is if you could find some sucker to give you $90M in cash in exchange for stocks that you knew to be valueless - and that would be old-fashioned fraud, not any kind of novel tax scam.
Yes, but both the asset owner and the bank agree that the asset value is now $100M. That provides a benchmark admitted by the asset owner that could be considered a realization event.
Don't want to pay taxes on an appreciated asset? Don't use it to extract economic value whether by sale or more complex transactions.
In other words, at least TRY try to eliminate the ginormous loophole that allows owners of vastly appreciated assets to have their cake and eat it too.
No because that valuation is entirely speculative. The loan is offered on the assumption of repayment. The collateral is a surety of payment, not the payment itself.
Now, if you default on the loan and your collateral is seized, that might be a realization event. But far more likely the tax court would consider the auction at which the lender sold your stock (at whatever price they could get) to be the actual realization value.
In short, there is no loophole here to exploit, much less one to close.
Rossami, that's a pretty formalistic take on a process ripe with possibilities for moral hazard, self-dealing, tax fraud, and skulduggery.
So…what? The objective question about whether something is realized income or not is not dependent on such moral/ethical questions as to whether skulduggery is at play (unless it involves outright/illegal fraud). If there are rules, let them be followed and enforced. That doesn’t turn unrealized income gains into actual taxable income.
Some people don't like the Earned Income Tax Credit because it can be ripe for fraud and abuse. Whether it is or isn't doesn't impact its legitimacy under the tax code or the Constitution.
This is a statement about current tax law, but there's no reason it has to be this way. It seems reasonable to me that the tax code could say a gain on an asset has been realized once you take an action that takes advantage of the gain.
Yes, this means that the asset owner would risk paying taxes and then the value of the asset declining. Presumably that would just mean people would prefer to actually sell the asset and realize the gain directly rather than engage in this tax dodge.
What counts as "an action that takes advantage of the gain" in your hypothetical?
There is a well-known wealth effect where unrealized gains nevertheless lead people to buy more/bigger/fancier things than they might otherwise have. Statistically, more people eat out when the market is up than when it is down. How do you propose to measure and thus trigger on such subjective choices? (Note that choosing to eat out a little more is not a tax dodge. Neither is taking out a mortgage.)
I’m not a tax attorney either, but I think there is always the possibility of gamesmanship, but also there is generally already IRS regulations, guidance, and precedent that addressing those issues.
In Zarniwoop’s $100M stock example, let’s say you are the stock owner and I am a willing buyer. I want to buy the stock because I think it will appreciate over 10 years at an average annualized rate of 20%. Instead of buying the stock, I give you $95M loan at 25% interest for 10 years. It is a non-recourse loan, so I can only pursue the collateral and nothing else to satisfy any judgment. Wouldn’t this be some sort of gamesmanship that could roughly approximate a sale in substance but not in form?
Edit: I think you can even assign your voting/control rights to the secured party.
This happens all the time. We pay taxes on income and then inflation makes that income worth less. We don't get a refund.
If it's not a tax scam, why are all the rich doing it?
See the WSJ article "Buy, Borrow, Die: How Rich Americans Live Off Their Paper Wealth"
Here's an excerpt: "For borrowers, the calculation is clear: If an asset appreciates faster than the interest rate on the loan, they come out ahead. And under current law, investors and their heirs don’t pay income taxes unless their shares are sold. The assets may be subject to estate taxes, but heirs pay capital-gains taxes only when they sell and only on gains since the prior owner’s death. The more they can borrow, the longer they can hold appreciating assets. And the longer they hold, the bigger the tax savings."
As a number of people have pointed out, borrowing with stock as your collateral is not economically the same as selling the stock, so there’s no realisation of the stock at the time of borrowing…..
…..but it’s also possible to borrow money on a “non recourse” basis, ie a form of limited liability where the lender has no recourse to the borrower’s general funds, but only against the pledged asset. (Obviously the lender requires a higher rate of interest to reflect the risk.)
Economically such a loan is [a standard loan plus a put option] where the lender is effectively granting the borrower an option to put the stock on the lender for an amount equal to the principal of the loan.
So imagine I buy stock for $5m. Its market value increases to $100m. I then borrow $50m from the bank “non recourse”, ie if I fail to repay, the bank can ony grab the stock, nothing else. Thus I have guaranteed that I am going to realise at least $50m for my stock. Economically I am in much the same position as if I had actualy sold my stock for $100m, and bought a call option for $50m exercisable at $1. ie I keep all the potential upside above $50m, but I bank a minimum of $50m.
I am not an expert on US taxes, but I do know that the IRS does tax certain transactions using options according to their economic substance, so that in some situations you could be taxed as if you had sold your stock, even if you haven’t formally done so. Whether it would apply in the scenario I sketched above, I couldn’t say.
It also needs to be noted that the theory of relativity applies to complclated financial transactions. One can get from A to B, economically, by lots of different paths and often there is not a single canonical “real transaction” that the actual path is a disguised version of. So no doubt while the tax authorites might like to say that – in my example above – you have “really” sold your stock and bought a call option, that’s just their special pleading. It’s just as valid to say that you have borrowed non recourse against your stock holding, that you have deliberately hung on to and not sold.
In an Elon / Tesla situation you’d have thought he’d have a good argument that hanging on to control of Tesla was important and so a form of transaction that achieves that is not a mere tax avoiding artifice.
At some point you'll need to realize income to pay back the $90M you borrowed, plus interest, and that will be taxable, so really this is more of a tax deferment than a tax dodge.
If you borrow more money off the increased value of your asset, then you can pay off the old loan without ever realizing an "income". Of course this only works if the asset keeps rising in value. There is also the recent examples of government bailing out those with big financial losses. This socializing of risk has been bad for our economy.
That doesn't really seem like a viable strategy, since its not enough just that the asset keep increasing in value, it has to increase fast enough for you to keep up with your debt payments with additional borrowing
But even that isn't really fast enough, since you wouldn't be borrowing money just for the sake of paying it back. You're borrowing the money because you want to spend it on stuff. So really each subsequent loan would need to cover the full cost of preceding loan+interest as well as whatever living expenses you have that necessitate the loan.
Doesn't really seem worth the risk of your assets plateauing or decreasing in value just to avoid income taxes.
Tax is theft! Law is the initiation of force, threats against rights, reason, morality, choice. Some do choose taxation. That is their right. It is NOT their right to force their choice, their politics on me, any more than I would have the right to force them. It you disagree, you advocate a war of all against all, dog-eat-dog politics.
First of all, you would never get 90% of the value, more like 50%
Anybody can take out a margin loan, not just rich people. Also, this would apply to a home equity loan or credit card cash advance
It is not a tax free income, it is a loan on which there are interest payments and can be called or require additional collateral if the stock prices falls significantly
It is not a tax loophole but basic accounting as the additional cash is offset by an equal amount of liabilities
Is some state trying to tax unrealized income?
Yes, Washington if I remember correctly. This case, however, is based on the federal tax code. Specifically, a requirement under the Mandatory Repatriation Tax which was part of the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act of 2017.
See the section starting pg 15 of the case's writ of certiorari for a better description.
Its the federal government in this case and parts at least are clearly unconstitutional, from the cert petition:
"The MRT, however, simply deems the corporations’ retained earnings going back to 1986 to be the 2017 income of their U.S. shareholders in proportion to their ownership stakes in 2017. The shareholders are then taxed on that deemed “income”—which, by definition, has
not been distributed to them—at a rate based on how the corporation held the retained earnings in 2017: 15.5 percent for earnings held in cash or cash equivalents and 8 percent otherwise.
The MRT taxes shareholders irrespective of whether they owned shares at the time the corporation made the earnings on which they’re being taxed and irrespective of whether they could force the corporation to make a distribution."
If I bought shares of a corporation covered by the act in 2015, the price I paid for the shares would reflect the corporations retained earnings prior to 2015. I can't see how they can possibly tax me for income not only that I haven't received, but that I will never receive. Any distribution of retained earnings would reduce the value of the stock I purchased.
It would be like buying a home that had tripled in value since '86 in 2015 and then have it "deemed" that you realized that capital gain.
I don't understand the mechanics. I buy an asset (stock, beanie baby, whatever) for $100. The value goes up to $200. I pay, say, $20 tax on $100 in unrealized capital gains. The value drops back to $100. Do I get my $20 back? Or is the idea that paying the tax increased the basis to $200, and I have a $100 loss?
If I get the $20 back, that's going to do wonders for budgets in recessions. OTOH, if the gubmint is going to insist on collecting gains each year, then they ought to refund losses annually as well.
It's even more fun if your tax rates change between the gain and the loss.
That's what Calabresi is implying the law does, but it doesn't.
The case is mostly about realized gains that were held overseas. Previously, those gains were not taxed until brought back to the U.S. The Moores want those gains treated as wealth rather than income because they realized the gains 20 years ago (but didn't have to pay taxes then because the gains were held offshore).
Even to the extent the case does involve unrealized capital gains in a company, the requirement also does not apply to just any gains, but is limited to certain types of corporate income.
And, no, this has nothing to do with assets other than a 10% or greater ownership interest in a corporation. As the government's brief points out, there are multiple instances in which individuals must pay tax on corporate (or partnership) income that has been realized even if the money was not paid to the individual.
Basically, Calabresi is mischaracterizing the issue, pretending it's a tax on wealth when it is a tax on income, realized income, and the real question is whether (as Congress has done in many ways with respect to many different corporate/business forms) Congress may treat realized income of the foreign corporation/business entity as realized income of the individual, rather than waiting for the realized income to be officially distributed.
(And all of this is a one-time thing so that a change in the tax code didn't allow people in the Moore's situation to avoid tax at all, because under the new regime, they could now repatriate the deferred income without paying any tax, but they've been deferring taxes on foreign corporate income each year for something like 20 years, so that's quite a windfall.)
How is "corporation realizes income, so tax the shareholder even though it hasn't been distributed to him" meaningfully different from "the beanie baby has increased in value, so tax the owner on the increase even though he hasn't sold it"?
Because the corporate form is a fiction created by law and, particularly in the case of a foreign corporation, Congress can acknowledge the fiction or tax the actual people. This is different from stock price appreciation or the appreciation in (unrealized) value of a beanie baby or other asset. This involves actual income that was fully realized.
This is: You create an LLC (or partnership) that buys a beanie baby, then sells it at a higher price, and the law says the net income is taxable at a pro rata share by each member of the LLC (or partnership). If you don't sell the beanie baby, no tax. But if you sell it for a profit, you've realized the gain and the net income can be taxed under the Constitution.
You've misstated the case. They haven't realized any income. Neither the Ninth Circuit decision nor the government's position argue that they have. Their position is that "realization" is not necessary to the definition of "income."
In 2006, they invested $40,000 in an Indian company. In exchange, they received 11% of the company's common stock. The company has been profitable and increased in value. so, naturally, their 11% of it has also increased in value. The company has put all its profits back into the company. It has never paid a dividend, so the Moores have literally not realized one cent. Nevertheless, the government argues that increased value is "income" it can tax.
That's the issue. Is "realization" necessary for something to be "income" as that word is used in the Sixteenth Amendment. If I had to guess the outcome, given the current composition of the Court, I would predict a very high probability that it will side with the Moores.
You're wrong. The government isn't taxing the increase in the share price (the "increased value"). The US government is taxing the realized income from business activities that they engaged in via the corporate form, a foreign corporate form. Everyone pretending this didn't involve actual income is misstating the case.
From the government's brief:
"Here, for instance, 'there is no dispute that KisanKraft actually' realized gains. Pet. App. 13. Petitioners thus appear to take issue only with Congress’s choice to tax shareholders on a corporation’s realized gains, rather than taxing the corporation itself on those gains."
That's the crux.
Yes, the corporation realized income. No one disputes that. But that doesn't mean the Moores, as shareholders, realized income. The case is Moore v. United States, not KisanKraft v. United States.
No, he's not wrong. You are (apparently intentionally) misrepresenting who "they" are in "they haven't realized any income". Yes, the corporation has realized income but that's irrelevant first because corporations aren't taxed on income - they're taxed on profits and second, because the corporation isn't the one being dunned for the taxes. The shareholders of the corporation, who to date have received no income from the company, are the ones being dunned for the taxes.
"They", the shareholders, have not realized any income. Yet the government is claiming that they, the shareholders, owe taxes on the increase in value of their share of the ownership of the company.
“They”, the shareholders, have not realized any income. Yet the government is claiming that they, the shareholders, owe taxes on the increase in value of their share of the ownership of the company.
You are misrepresenting (intentionally or not) what the government is claiming.
The government is claiming that the owners of corporation may be taxed on their pro rata share of realized income of the corporation. They are most definitely not being taxed on the increase in the value of the corporation. This has nothing to do with stock price or the corporate valuation, it has to do with corporate income.
They as the corporation is fine, but what is a corporation? It is an extremely useful legal fiction by which individuals can collaborate in joint enterprises. But it’s still a fiction. The realized gains of a foreign corporation (in particular) can be attributed to individual owners commensurate with their ownership interest rather than allowing the individuals to defer taxes indefinitely by allowing the corporation to retain them indefinitely. And this is what Congress has done. It disregards the legal fiction of a foreign corporation in determining who realized the actual income made by the joint enterprise. They, the shareholders, therefore did realize income.
Congress allows plenty of advantages for setting up a corporation, but it need not allow this particular tax dodge.
Basically, Calabresi is mischaracterizing the issue, pretending it’s a tax on wealth when it is a tax on income, realized income, and the real question is whether (as Congress has done in many ways with respect to many different corporate/business forms) Congress may treat realized income of the foreign corporation/business entity as realized income of the individual, rather than waiting for the realized income to be officially distributed.
I think the real point is that the case implicates all those rules whereby Congress seeks to tax shareholders of foreign companies on the foreign companies' income. Hence it's a big deal. And also hence Roberts will be very reluctant to rule on behalf of the taxpayer here. He hates big deals.
But objectively taxing A on B's income, because A is a shareholder of B, is taxing A on the unrealised profits from his shareholding. The income of B may never show up in A's hands - B could go bust before any income is distributed.
So Calabresi is not mischaracterising the issue, he's correctly characterising the issue. It's just that the Roberts will need to work hard to bury that issue. Because it's a BFD.
Of course the constitutionally safe means of taxing B's income is just to tax it directly. So you're a French company with your business only in France ? Don't care, pay up. We're the IRS. Unlikely to amuse the French and if it's a French company 0.2% owned by Americans, with no customers or suppliers in the US, nor directors who wish to visit the US, ever, then the IRS will struggle to collect.
But if it's owned by a big US company, collecting is not going to be hard.
"But objectively taxing A on B’s income, because A is a shareholder of B, is taxing A on the unrealised profits from his shareholding."
Nope. This is done all the time in the context of partnerships, S corporations, etc. These are realized gains which may be attributable to the individual.
if it’s a French company 0.2% owned by Americans
This isn't taxing a foreign corporation. This is taxing Americans on foreign income that is attributable to them. And it only applies where they own 10% or more of the corporation. So, no, this doesn't apply to buying 100 shares of Toyota on the Nikkei such that you owe tax on x% of Toyota's realized income. And definitely not you owe x% on the increase in the share price of Toyota. Pretending it is is mischaracterizing the issue.
It's mostly whether Congress can is constitutionally required to recognize the foreign corporate form or may, instead, treat as your income the realized gains of a foreign corporation of which you own 10% or more. That Congress may do that with respect to domestic partnerships, S Corporations, etc., suggests that, yes, they can disregard the fiction of the corporate form at least in some instances.
The Moore’s never realized the gain.
The deal is that they invested in an Indian farm implements company, almost all the corporate profits were reinvested in new plant and equipment: “True to Ravi’s original business plan, KisanKraft reinvested all its earnings to grow the business, which has expanded to serve farmers across India. By 2017, it employed over 350 representatives in 14 regional offices serving 2,500 local dealers.”
So in this particular case the Moore’s either have to pay the taxes out of their own pocket, or the small farm implements company would have to liquidate plant and equipment and have to downsize or be forced into bankruptcy to generate the funds to pay the Moore’s 135,000 share of retained income.
Under standard accounting reinvested profits and working capital are retained earnings, forcing a distribution of reinvested profits could cause many smaller enterprises like this one to collapse. The Moore’s originally invested 40k, their share of retained earnings is 135k, that would put a valuation of the entire company of only 1.25m. How many firms that size can suddenly distribute 75% of the value of the company to the shareholders and survive?
And that doesn't even take into account the worst part of the law, if the Moore's didn't invest on the ground floor, but bought their 14% stake in 2015 for 140,000 (assuming the company was worth a million in 2015), they would still be on the hook for the 14% of entire retained earnings of the company back to its founding in 2005, because Congress deems the all the retained earnings to the current owners as of 2017, regardless of when they actually bought their stake.
Whatever original public understanding the Constitution relied upon, it seemed to me it did not survive into the era post-1950. I tried in practically every school grade from fourth grade onward to find a teacher who could explain the distinction between "direct," taxation, and any other kind of taxation. No luck, including among the civics teachers. Likewise with, "unless in Proportion to the Census or Enumeration herein before directed to be taken." I guess that means the Court is free now to say that stuff means whatever the Justices want it to mean. Which seems to be the rule now anyway, about everything.
“My grade-school teachers weren’t jurists, constitutional scholars, or legal historians, so originalism is bunk.”
Um, okay.
Area Man, nah. Originalism is bunk because the context of creation for a historical survival (any founding-era document you might care to cite, for instance) never lasts long enough to arrive in the present along with the text. That means folks unqualified to infer from a deeply-studied historical record what that context was at the time a text was created, are doomed to assign only present-minded contexts to the text—present-mindedness being all such people have to go on.
Calabresi is one of those present-minded analysts. So are all the current members of the Supreme Court. Feeding nothing but historical ignorance in, means only bunk comes out.
But that doesn't address the point you missed about what I wrote. The reference to 1950s grade school teachers was satirical. I was mocking the notion of, "public understanding," which would-be originalists retail as a key to insight into the past. If actual ordinary members of the public during Steven Calabresi's lifetime—like my teachers, for instance—lacked commonplace knowledge of the alleged, "public understanding," originalists purport to rely on, where did Calabresi come up with it? And how?
Fairly good answers to such questions exist. Calabresi's OP doesn't point to them. That shows he does not know where to find those answers, or to evaluate when and where they might or might not apply. That does not mean he is an unusually bad originalist. It means he is a typical originalist.
No, you misunderstand. EVERYTHING that doesn't conform to what Stephen thinks is bunk.
So if someone decides the meaning of the words "slavery" and "involuntary servitude" have changed, we can have slavery back? Good to know!
If we can't determine the meaning of words at the time a law is passed, we have no legal system. Somebody tomorrow could claim the imprisonment of any kind/duration is cruel and unusual.
MaddogEngineer, I do not suggest it is impossible to determine the meaning of an antique text. I do insist that it is unwise to rely for interpretation on someone who lacks the skill, training, and experience necessary to do historical interpretation. Those unreliable analysts happen to include most lawyers, but not all of them. William Baude, for instance, is better trained, and more interested, in historical nuance than is Calabrisi. Between the two of them, you would be wiser to choose an original-meaning interpretation from Baude.
If you don't know what "in Proportion to the Census or Enumeration herein before directed to be taken" means, then you're going to hate learning about the House of Representatives.
You can also find plenty of things on these subjects, including what a "direct" tax is. One helpful resource to start with is https://constitution.congress.gov/browse/
That lay people (i.e., non-lawyers) don't know exactly what these things means hundreds of years after the Constitution was ratified doesn't mean 1) they didn't have meanings when ratified, or 2) that the meanings can't be decerned today.
Saying the framers discussed direct taxation a lot (very true- it's in the Constitution after all) doesn't answer Stephen's point, which is that nobody knows what it actually means.
And I am sorry, nobody knows what it actually means. It seems to be some sort of anachronistic distinction about taxation that isn't recognized in any modern taxation system, or maybe it just means a capitation. But whatever, nobody who actually makes these arguments ever offers, say, a 7 word definition of what a "direct" tax means, and that's really fatal to the notion of using this as a limitation to be imposed by unelected judges on the power of the elected Congress to deal with national problems.
Except the unelected judges don’t impose the requirement. The Constitution does. It’s the judges’ job to determine what it means because that’s their role in our constitutional system. And they can do that using the normal methods of constitutional interpretation. If, in the end, a definition beyond a capitation cannot be determined, then other tools besides original public meaning are resorted to. That’s what every originalist who understands the concept would agree to because, despite what originalism’s naysayers would have people believe, it’s not a religion but, rather, a limiting principle in interpreting laws. No true originalist believes the absolute original meaning of a provision can always be found. Instead, first you exhaust that inquiry (which usually ends it), and if no answer is sufficiently found, you move on. I can’t speak for everyone who styles themselves an originalist, but that was the Scalia conception of the method.
Area Man, if the Constitution decrees it to be the job of a judge untrained in the methods of history to say what an antique text means, then it is equally true that the Constitution leaves room for historians who are expert at that task to explain why those judges are full of beans.
Probably best they burn everything in the National Archives before 1916 because not a word in them would make sense.
James Joyce published "Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man" in 1916 too, best burn that too, there's no historical context left to understand it. The words no longer make sense, as Lathrop's teachers could probably tell you.
Hmmm. Just glancing quickly at the petition, they say that the op below held:
That's not really the same thing as taxing unrealized capital gains.
Sure it is. Remember that in this case, the shareholders never received any of the corporation's income. The corporation's profits were reinvested in the company. The value of the shareholders' ownership interest would have gone up but it was clearly unrealized as to the shareholders.
Can the federal government tax you for my income?
It sounds like this corporation is not having much legal effect if its income counts as realized personal income for its shareholders.
TwelveInch,
Exactly, it's not the thing that Calabresi and commenters here are pretending it is.
But didn’t the Moore’s simply buy existing shares or did they create a separate legal entity to partner with the firm
If they are simply shareholders in a c corp, the tax falls on the corporate entity, not the shareholders as in an s corp or partnership
Congress can’t choose to attribute corporate income to shareholders of of a c corp in such a narrow situation absent a taxable distribution as it does not apply to all shareholders
From an accounting stand point, after tax corporate profit becomes part of retained earnings on the balance sheet and therefore is unrealized by shareholders until a distribution is made
Also as a minority shareholder, they have zero authority as to how the profits are allocated (reinvested vs a dividend payment) so they can’t authorize a distribution to cover the tax liability
I think you have a problem here in giving a coherent notion of realization in a modern age that allows such complicated notions of ownership. In particular, if taken seriously then how does your position not allow all economic activity to be restructured in a way that eliminates all realization? At the very least it seems like it would force the government to set the corporate tax rate equal to the personal tax rate or accept that anyone willing to do the paperwork could shield all income they don't literally consume from tax -- which would be economically devastating
Like this feels very much like the situation involving the clause saying that natural laws and mathematical theorems aren't subject to patent. That statement was based on the assumption that there is a coherent distinction between inventions/useful discoveries and mathematical theorems. But we eventually discovered that there was an isomorphism and that it was literally the case that you could restate any software program (and indeed more generally even any practical device based on known laws of physics) as a very particular kind of mathematical theorem.
The courts (correctly) didn't say, shit guess you can't patent anything and give up. They reasonably inferred that in the face of this kind of failure in assumptions you had to look, at least a little, to the expected applications. Seems like a similar thing is true here.
Eventually, you have to realize your gains in order to get the money you need to buy food (or do anything other than watch this particular investment continue to go up). These "complicated notions of ownership" are not really all that complicated and do not allow for the gamesmanship you describe.
Note that if they did, these "games" would have occurred long before this particular tax was enacted in 2017 and would be occurring in situations other than foreign income "repatriation". The fact that nobody is or has been playing these games should be strong evidence that there is not the potential for gamesmanship you suggest.
Additionally, the IRS has a very firm grasp on many ways that people try to evade taxes when they do realize income, and courts (even if "only" tax courts rather than Article III courts) have ruled in favor of the government in many of those cases.
It's easy to say things like "complicated notions" but it is much harder to find a concrete way to have a corporation pay for your personal consumption without the government collecting personal (and possibly also corporate) taxes on the income.
The whole point is that they were playing these games. Corporations and people were shielding foreign income for years. The law changed in 2017 not to change the way taxes were paid and, in order to avoid people like the Moore's effectively avoiding any tax on the corporate income from 1986 to 2017, the law provided that these realized gains for which taxes had been deferred would now be taxed. Otherwise, they would get 30 years of tax free income because the new calculation wouldn't capture those old gains or appreciation in value of the corporation.
There is no question that, in this case, the Moores are playing hide the income game. You can argue that Congress couldn't close the loophole in this fashion (which isn't a winning argument in my opinion), but you can't pretend they aren't trying to play games and get a huge windfall of tax free income.
No matter how you slice it, you're talking about (unrealized) capital gains.
No, they are not talking about unrealized capital gains.
The tax isn't on an increased valuation of the corporation, an increased stock price of the corporation, or an increase in the corporations assets. It is a tax on the realized income (they produced a product, sold it at a profit, that income) of the foreign corporation which Congress chose to, as it constitutionally could, treat as the income of the owners of the corporation rather than treating it as the income of a fictional entity created under foreign law.
The income being taxed is the realized income of a joint enterprise and Congress just said, basically, if you own 10% or more of a foreign corporation, we're going to tax it like it's a partnership (i.e., the owners/partners pay tax on their share of the realized income).
Everyone pretending it is other than this (i.e. that it involves taxing unrealized capital gains) doesn't understand the question presented or, like Calabresi, is disingenuously advocating for the Moores.
I get what you are saying but if the company is a c corp wouldn’t that be double taxation if the corporation pays taxes as a c corp and then trying to tax the shareholders on that same income.
I admit I don’t know much about case specifics but it seems like the law isn’t equally applied and singles out a very specific set of taxpayers. In the u.s the shareholders wouldn’t be taxed on profits in a c corp and why is it only on 10% or more stakes
It would if the company were a domestic corporation and, so, paying US taxes. But this is a foreign corporation and, moreover, this is a one-time, single year tax provision:
Further:
This whole thing arises as, essentially, a one-time tax to close a loophole due to the U.S. changing the way it taxed corporations (and/or U.S. citizens who invest in foreign corporations). If the MRT is struck down, then the Moores would get to repatriate all of their earnings without paying any tax on it, apparently. They wouldn't have to pay the MRT if found unconstitutional, but the new law also allows them to receive dividends from the corporation without paying taxes on that very clearly realized income. Thus, the garner a huge windfall by having deferred taxes for many years under the old system and by being able to repatriate their money without paying tax on it under the new system.
Instead of double taxation, if the Moore's win, they get away with no taxation at all on this income.
As I understand your position, the US should "look through" the Indian corporation and tax the income of that foreign corporation as the income of the US shareholders.
But on that logic - with which I have some sympathy, so long as it is consistently applied - your assertion that :
"Instead of double taxation, if the Moore’s win, they get away with no taxation at all on this income."
is obviously false. For out of their Indian income, they have had to pay Indian tax. We can hardly pretend that the income is theirs, but the expenses, including taxes paid, are not.
So they have already suffered tax on their income once. The question is now - how many more bites of tax should be applied to that same income ?
I don't know if they have paid Indian tax or not. Generally, my understanding is that there are tax offsets for paying foreign taxes. But maybe not.
If U.S. corporations and individuals have to pay tax on foreign income in both the foreign country and the U.S., then, yeah, they are getting taxed twice. That's regardless of this particular case, because if that's how the system works then that's how it would work even if the change in the law had never been enacted.
In other words, how the IRS should treat income that has already been taxed by another government is a separate issue not germane to this case.
Well it is germane to the emotional content of your argument - that those wicked Moores (no relation) are getting away with something.
It may be that the rules allow income to be taxed twice, or thrice or four times, but it can hardly be an occasion for emotional spluttering and fightin' talk about "loopholes" if the taxpayer manages to escape with his income only being taxed once.
And to be clear, my position is not that the U.S. should look through the foreign corporation and tax the realized income of the joint venture as that of the individual U.S. shareholders, only that the Congress is constitutionally permitted to do so.
Although, in this specific case, where it was part of a much larger set of laws that modernized the U.S. corporate tax regime that changed how things work with respect to deferred taxes on foreign income that were allowed under the old system, I don't see anything obviously unfair about this system and it does appear ruling the loophole unconstitutional would provide a windfall to the Moores.
Well what Congress is allowed to do by the 16th Amendment is "to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived" which leaves all sorts of questions as to the meaning of "incomes", "source", "derived", not to mention "from."
But it seems to me unlikely that 16A gives Congress the power to tax me on your income - "from" has to be doing some kind of work.
Thus there must be a limit of some kind which requires a constitutionally sufficient connection between the income and the taxpayer. But what the nature of that connection is, I couldn't say.
Faut de mieux, the natural assumption would be that the income needs to belong to the taxpayer. And as a matter of general commercial law the income of a corporation does not belong to its members. While the income of a partnership does.
"For these reasons, the direct tax assessed on the Moores' unrealized capital gains is unconstitutional."
I'm Howard Jarvis, and I approve this message.
Perhaps after this we can have another case where it is decided that taxing natural persons at a much higher rate than fictitious/corporate persons violates the equal protection clause of 14A.
Perhaps after this we can have another case where it is decided that taxing natural persons at a much higher rate than fictitious/corporate persons violates the equal protection clause of 14A.
Well, that would pretty much scrap a lot (perhaps even most) of the existing tax code, which generally taxes different groups of people (and I mean natural persons) at different rates...as well as other forms of preferential treatment...for a variety of reasons.
The Constitution ceased to have any meaning when justices ruled that the Due Process clause really means that a gay man has a right to thrust his erect member in and out of another man's digestive system until completion.
And you are why the mute button exists.
What are we talking about here? Income people have not only actually received and fully own, they are completely free to spend it on anything they want, with only one restriction, they just have to spend it outside the United States. Characterizing such income as “unrealized” for purposes of US taxes is a nice legal fiction and a cute accounting trick. But to paraphrase Abraham Lincoln, just because one chooses to call a tail a leg doesn’t entitle one to invoke constitutional provisions about legs and say they apply.
Exactly.
Income people have not only actually received and fully own, they are completely free to spend it on anything they want, with only one restriction, they just have to spend it outside the United States. Characterizing such income as “unrealized” for purposes of US taxes is a nice legal fiction and a cute accounting trick.
And how exactly would they spend their equity (stock) in a company? Do you have any idea what equities are and how they work, or what “value” means with regard to them? A stock’s “value” is simply what you could receive for it IF you sold it, which changes from moment to moment. What you have prior to such an event is not any income, but rather the right to exchange that equity for cash (or something else of value), with the difference between what you initially paid for the equity and what you finally received for it (profit or loss) being income. Until then it is only theoretical income.
They aren't being taxed on the increase in the stock price or corporate valuation. They are being taxed on the actual income made by the joint enterprise that, under foreign law is treated as a corporation, but Congress said, no, if you engage in this sort of joint enterprise, you have to pay your share of tax on the realized income. If you choose to contractually bind yourself not to actually have cash in your pocket, that's no different than accepting payment in the form of a bond or debt obligation. You made the money, that's all that matters for constitutional tax purposes.
What are we talking about here? Income people have not only actually received and fully own, they are completely free to spend it on anything they want, with only one restriction, they just have to spend it outside the United States.
This is, to use a tax-technical term, stark raving bonkers. It's as if you don't know anything about either tax or corporate law. Shareholders cannot just wander into the offices of companies they own shares in and start spending the company's money. The technical term for that is "theft."
And even if they are given some of the company's money with the company's official permission that money is - obviously - a dividend or other distribution which is - obviously - immediately taxable as their own income.
Where the money is when it is taken, or where it is spent, is completely irrelevant.
Given that this case is about the correct interpretation of the 16th amendment, I’m not sure why the post needed a big digression about how the founders of the United States expected federal taxes to work back in 1787.
I understand that this may be hard to understand for someone who is only capable of denying desecrations of the innocent, but it's right there in the introduction: "Our brief presents the original public meaning of the Sixteenth Amendment and of the requirement that direct taxes be apportioned among the States."
Once you address that this isn't an income tax within the meaning of the Sixteenth Amendment, you run into the 1787 requirement that other direct taxes must be apportioned as mentioned, and so the meaning of that requirement is relevant.
Can you show me an example of someone arguing that this tax is apportioned?
Their argument is that the 16th Amendment created a narrow exception to the original Constitution’s requirement that all direct taxes have to be apportioned. Taxes on incomes, and only incomes, don’t have to be.
Their basic argument is that this tax isn’t a tax on incomes. Because it isn’t the 16th Amendment doesn’t apply, so the original constitution’s requirement that it must be apportioned among the several states still holds. And since it isn’t a tax on incomes, and it isn’t apportioned, it’s unconstitutional.
In my view, income that can be used outside the United States is still “income,” so the 16th Amendment’s exception still applies. But I would agree with their argument that if it isn’t “income,” the tax is unconstitutional.
It seems to me that given the 16th Amendment assumed that Congress would pass implementing limitation, and there's a necessary and proper clause, if Congress says something is income, it's income under the 16th Amendment.
I don’t think that’s right. Income isn’t absolutely anything Congress cares to call income.
I think this particular case involves income. But income has a meaning. It’s still the role of the courts to police the boundaries of the term.
I agree with this. I don't think Congress could say that, person A deposits $5k in a non-interest bearing bank account, then 30 days later, withdraws $200 of his balance, that the $200 is "income" under the 16th Amendment.
Or, even starker, you friend asks to borrow (for free) your SUV to pick up the furniture. You give them the keys and they bring it back later that day. Congress couldn't say you getting your SUV back was income in the amount of the value of the SUV. So, no, income definitely is not just whatever Congress says it is.
If the Moores just leave their assets (and earnings) outside the US, no problem, right? No harm, no foul?
Why couldn't the Moore's use their foreign earnings to acquire US assets w/in the US and then liquidate them in a tax efficient manner?
The tax law in question requires them to treat unrealized foreign income as realized. What would be the purpose of their foreign corporation buying US assets? Why would that avoid the tax under this law?
I assume he meant "if this law is found unconstitutional".
To which I would just reply: I do not think there is any huge injustice going on if the US cannot assert an income tax on money which was not earned in the US.
No, Michael, the law in question requires them to treat realized foreign income of a corporation in which they own a greater than 10% stake as their own income. You know, just how Congress treats partnerships and S corporations?
I think your main problem here is "treat." The 16th Amendment permits Congress to levy taxes on income. It's not easy to see why we should read that as "deemed income" as opposed to "actual income."
So either the income arising in the entity that the IRS wishes to look through is actual income arising to the members, or it isn't - it's actual income arising to the entity and only deemed to be income of the members. If it isn't, it can't be taxed in the hands of the members. If it is, it can. Congress's "treating" has nothing to do with it. It is or it isn't. Congress doesn't get to "treat" things that are not my income as my income. The 16th Amendment doesn't give that power.
So let us stipulate that it is. But if it is, then 0.01% of the entity's income is income of the 0.01% owners. It can't be income of the 10% owners, but not the 0.01% owners. (One can see an argument about the 50% threshold, eg that the 50%+ shareholder has the power to require the income be paid to him.)
And the same conclusion must apply to any corporate entities. Not just foreign ones, and not just foreign ones with passive or otherwise IRS disapproved income. It must apply to all. No "treating" - if it's the actual income of 10% owners of foreign corporations doing naughty
things - it's the actual income of any shareholder in any body corporate.
And correspondingly, dividends received by shareholders cannot be actual income, for monies paid from me to myself can't be income.
And when the shareholder sells his shares, the shares can't be a taxable asset, for the same reason. The shareholder must be disposing of a proportionate share of the assets of the corporation, just as with a partnership.
There's whole chunks of the tax code that are inconsistent with the idea that shareholders are the real actual owners of the company's income.
There's nothing in the 16th Amendment that says Congress has the power to see anything other than the actuality.
Since we're talking about the unrealised gains of stockholders in a corporation, it may be worth reminding folk, especially the non numerate lawyers here present, why taxing capital gains on companies is taxing the same profits twice.
Just like stars, corporations die in the end. And by the time they end, they have distributed all of their assets. Thus the final value of a stock is always zero. And all profits that the corporation ever made have been distributed, along with the subscribed capital. For simplicity we can collapse a corporation's life to two periods, periods 1 and 2, and we can also deem interest/discount rates to be zero, since neither simplification makes any difference to the basic arithmetic.
We will also assume that shareholders are not taxed at all on dividends and that individuals and corporations pay the same 20% tax on income (except dividends.)
We will suppose that $100 is subscribed as capital at the beginning of period 1. The corporation earns (and realises in cash) $20 in period 1 and $40 in period 2. Taxes are 20%. Thus at the end of period 2, the company has $148 in assets :
ie $100+$20--$4+$40-$8)
It has earned $60 in profits and paid $12 in taxes.
If the shareholder (we will assume only one) had run the business as an unincorporated business, then he too would have earned $60 in profits and paid $12 in taxes. He too would have had $148 in assets at the end of period 2 - the initial $100 investment, plus the retained post tax profits of $48. And he would walk away with $148, and no more taxes.
So when the business is incorporated, and liquidated at the end of period 2, $148 ends up in the shareholder's hands. But wait ! Surely he has made a $48 gain on hs shares ! Tax him !
In reality though, the business whether incorporated or not only ever made $60 in profits, and the tax has already been paid on that. Any more tax is taxing these same profits twice.
* which is not to say, of course, that all lawyers are non numerate. Our esteemed eponymous Conspirator-in-Chief, for example, is terrifyingly numerate.
If corporations are entitled to enjoy the rights that come up with being considered legally separate persons, then they have to put up with the liabilities that also come with it. Since different persons are being taxed, no person is being double taxed.
Critical to this case, the Supreme Court has repeatedly held that foreigners outside US territory have no constitutional rights, and fairly recently reaffirmed that this applies to foreign corporations. Foreign corporations lack constitutional personhood. This is why the tax code does not have to regard a foreign corporation as a legally separate person, and why it can treat income of a foreign corporation the Moores set up and own as being personal income of the Moores if it wants to.
Whether it is morally or legally or otherwise good policy to tax what is economically the same income twice is a different question from whether economically the same income is in fact being taxed twice.
You want your cake (the corporation is a separate person, so it’s income isn’t the individual's for taxation purposes; Moore v. U.S.) and to eat it too (the corporation’s income being taxed is the individual’s income being taxed because they’re really the same).
You’re going to have to pick a lane. You cannot have it both ways.
And, of course, likewise for you and the IRS.
My point is simply an arithmetical one. That if you treat the corporation as a person distinct from its shareholders, taxing it on its profits, and then also tax the shareholders on the dividends they receive and on their gains from dealing in the shares, you are taxing the same economic income twice, or sometimes thrice.
It seems to me unlikely that this double or triple taxation of the same economic income makes much sense economically, so the position you describe above that the corporation is a fiction and should be ignored, with the shareholders taxed directly on the income, with distributions and gains on dealing in the stock ignored for tax would be the most sensible, as it correcty represents the real economic position.
I appreciate, of course, the administrative convenience of taxing corporations as if they were persons, and taxing capital gains on corporate stock as if it represented an asset separate from the assets of the business.
But I'm not sure it's me who is trying to have it both ways. Ignore the corporation is fine by me. I'm not sure the IRS would go for it though. The have your cake and eat it merchants are the IRS. We'll respect the corporation's existence and their fat taxble profits, PLUS the income tax on the dividends, PLUS the tax on capital gains on corporate stock....except when it's inconvenient when we won't.
Your conclusion in your first paragraph is right but your historical reasoning is backwards. Corporations were granted "personhood" in the first place so they could be taxed and sued directly.
That said, you're missing Lee's point. Yes, you can tax multiple people seperately but you're not supposed to tax the same income multiple times. Consider your personal situation. You work a job and earn a wage. You are taxed on those wages. You give some of your wages to your spouse - the "co-owner" of the family. Your spouse is not again taxed on that same money even though your spouse is a separate legal (and taxable) person.
The Supreme Court held in United States v. Craft that the idea that marriage creates a separate legal personhood is nothing but a legal fiction that Uncle Sam has no obligation to respect when it comes to collecting taxes.
If that’s so, Congress could, tomorrow, change the law to do away with longstanding respect for this legal fiction, eliminate any references to a marriage being a single taxable entity, and instead not only tax the spouses individually but also tax any income realized from money transfers between them, e.g. income realized as payment for providing the spouse with sexual, companionship, and domestic services.
And by the way, I’ve been commenting on this blog since before Citizens United came out. And at the time, I brought up United States v. Craft. I said I thought it was absurd, arbitrary and capricious, for the Supreme Court to hold that thinking of a marriage as a having a separate legal personhood is nothing but a legal fiction, and then turn around and hold that thinking of a corporation a as having a separate legal personhood is enshrined in, required by, the Constitution itself.
Will repeat something I said in a reply to a comment. The Supreme Court recently reaffirmed that foreign corporations, like foreigners outside US territory generally, lack constitutional rights and lack constitutional personhood status. See Agency for International Development v. Alliance for Open Society International Inc.
This is why Congress and the tax code have no obligation to respect the separate personhood of the foreign corporation that the Moores set up. The tax code can simply ignore it. It can treat income of the Moore’s foreign corporation as if it were income of the Moores personally if it wants to.
And that’s why the basic premise of Professor Calabresi’s argument, that the tax code can’t treat the Moores’ foreign corporation’s income as if it were the Moores’ personal income, is wrong. No constitutional personhood means it can.
None of that seems particularly relevant to the central question of whether they have, in fact, received any income, which is, rather obviously, a precondition to being liable for an income tax. They do not control the corporation, but merely own 11% of it. They can't force the corporation to pay them dividends, which would, of course, be income. They haven't realized one cent of income and may never realize any income.
But the government is arguing that realization is not necessary for something to be "income" as that word was understood at the time of the drafting of the Sixteenth Amendment. I suspect the Supreme Court will not buy that argument, but I guess we'll see.
Yet even if that premise were correct, the MRT would be permissible because it applies to the post-1986 gains that corporations have realized. See 26 U.S.C. 965(a). Here, for instance, “there is no dispute that KisanKraft actually” realized gains. Pet. App. 13. Pe- titioners thus appear to take issue only with Congress’s choice to tax shareholders on a corporation’s realized gains, rather than taxing the corporation itself on those gains. But petitioners have identified no “constitutional ban on Congress disregarding the corporate form to facilitate taxation of shareholders’ income,” ibid.—as Congress has long done in Subpart F and similar con- texts involving partnerships and S corporations, see pp. 10-11, supra.
You have to deal with this argument.
The issue of whether "unrealized" income is taxable, that's a second argument if the first isn't winning. Which it is. On that, you have to deal with this:
Subchapter F taxation only applies to individuals with a controlling interest in a corporation, under the reasoning that they can vote themselves disbursements. The income is clearly at their disposal. In this case, the Moores, as mere 11% stakeholders, cannot.
In Commisioner v. Glenshaw Glass, 348 U.S. 426 (1955), the Court set forth a three-part test for "income": (1) accession to wealth; (2) clearly realized; (3) under complete dominion of the taxpayer. (2) isn't met here, and (3) certainly isn't.
But the Ninth Circuit and the government are arguing that the government can tax unrealized income. That is a radical idea that would turn 100+ years of tax law on its head.
No, the government is arguing that they, in these circumstances (foreign corp with 10%+ ownership), the government can disregard the fiction of the corporate form and treat the realized income as the realized income of the corporate owners. The first argument of the government doesn't turn on whether the income is realized.
The government does raise a backup argument that, in any case, the Sixteenth Amendment doesn't require income be "realized" prior to being taxed. The principle case relied upon by the Moores is easily distinguishable and has been undermined by later authority.
This isn't a case of unrealized market value appreciation. This case involves actual earnings that simply haven't been distributed. It's doubtful the 16th Amendment requires an actual distribution prior to taxation, though Congress has been free to allow for that in certain cases. They didn't here (to close a loophole wherein otherwise the Moores could avoid taxation on this particular income entirely).
I’m making a narrower argument. Government has much more leeway to ignore the fiction of the corporate form if it wishes when a foreign corporation is involved, for the reasons I stated above. A domestic corporation presents a separate question.
I agree with that.
But for constitutional purposes, I'm not at all sure Congress couldn't treat corporations they way they do S corps or partnerships, if they chose. Modern corporate law was not enshrined in the constitution.
This assumption by the government (That the individuals don't actually need to realize or receive the income in order to be taxed on it) is dubious, and leads to some absurd situations.
In the above situation, the US owners are liable for $15,000 worth of taxes, based on the company's retained earnings. But US owners never received a dime of that, and because of their minority ownership, cannot compel the delivery of dividends in order to pay for those taxes. So, how are they to obtain the cash to pay for these taxes? It may be in some cases the shares of the stock themselves could not cover those costs.
It's also pretty dangerous in terms of the entire corporate structure. That structure has premise that you can't be personally liable for more than you invest in a company. But under this law, the stock owners are "personally" liable for taxation on earnings made by a company. Which is certainly a unique situation, especially as the owners may not be able to directly access those earnings, and the stock price itself may not cover such earnings.
Imagine, investing a few thousands dollars in a certain stock. Then suddenly being told by the IRS that you now owe a few tens of thousands of dollars in taxes on that stock...despite the stock itself only being work a few thousand. It's possible.
Only that's not this situation or any likely situation.
And as far as corporate structure, there is no constitutional requirement that owners of a corporation are not liable for more than they invest in the corporation. That has been a policy decision that has been made and is one of the major advantages of a corporation to investors. But let's not pretend the U.S. Constitution guarantees owners of corporations immunity from liability beyond the total of their investment. (And, of course, the corporate veil can be pierced in some circumstances.)
The answer to whether it would be a good idea to structure the tax code or other laws to eliminate or substantial curb the limited liability they currently provide is why it is extremely unlikely you'll see the law passed that you fear. It's too ingrained in U.S. business system and U.S. culture for voters to countenance it.
This law at issue here is a one-time tax that closes a loophole given Congress shifted from one method of taxing U.S. owners on their foreign earnings to another system of taxing foreign earnings. The Moores basically want to be able to not pay under the new system and not pay under the old system. I don't think that's gonna win.
SCOTUS already ended the corporate veil when it decided that for profit corporations could have a religion. The Founding Fathers are up in heaven laughing hysterically at that ridiculous idea. Conservatives loved the Hobby Lobby decision, but as is often the case they didn't realize the likely long term consequences.
The Supreme Court recently reaffirmed that foreign corporations, like foreigners outside US territory generally, lack constitutional rights and lack constitutional personhood status. See Agency for International Development v. Alliance for Open Society International Inc.
Where, precisely ?
"The American Revolution of 1776 started as a tax revolt."
This statement is a misrepresentation and also implies that the Revolution started merely as an undignified squabble over money.
The theory was that there should be no taxation WITHOUT representation, not that there should be no taxation. A tax revolt was held after the Revolution, known as the Whiskey Rebellion, and was suppressed upon the order of Pres. George Washington.
I should point out that this blog post does not give any details about its argument. Is asserts:
"Unrealized capital gains are neither "incomes" nor "derived" within the original meaning of the Amendment. Both popular and legal dictionaries from the years around the ratification of the Sixteenth Amendment confirm that point."
Why not a few examples? If these dictionaries are evidence, why not at least pick a few definitions and show your work.
The author is of course correct, and so obviously so that it is a surprise that this is even before the Court. Worthy of note is that this provision was part of the law that Saint Donald Trump signed into law. Trump never particularly cared about the Constitution.
The Congress did pass five wealth taxes in the 18th and 19th centuries, all on real estate, all to fund wars and all correctly apportioned by state population. Let them do that apportionment if they really want a wealth tax. They are in general a terrible idea and we ought to be trying to eliminate or at least to reduce the reliance of local governments on them.
"Founders saw...an element of voluntariness...in indirect taxation."
Hidden tax, e.g., price inflation, is fraud. Taxes not noticed, not obvious, e.g., regulations, permits, are still destructive, immoral, theft, a right's violation, even when the victim has been taught from childhood (indoctrinated) to believe "The Most Dangerous Superstition" by Larken Rose.
A lot of posters are referring to corporate income. Businesses including corporations are taxed on PROFIT. The corporation was supposedly reinvesting all net income so no profit.