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Laphonza Butler Better Hope Other Senators Are Textualists
The residency requirement for Senators applies to those who are "elected," and not "appointed."
The distinction between elected and appointed positions is hardwired into the Constitution. This distinction arises in many contexts: the Foreign Emoluments Clause, Section 3, and now the qualifications for the Senate.
Article I, Section 3, lists three qualifications to serve in the Senate:
No Person shall be a Senator who shall not have (i) attained to the Age of thirty Years, and (ii) been nine Years a Citizen of the United States, and (iii) who shall not, when elected, be an Inhabitant of that State for which he shall be chosen.
The first two requirements apply when the Person "shall be a Senator." That is, when the person actually seeks to hold the position. But the third requirement applies at a very specific time: "when elected." In modern times, that would mean on election day. But in 1788, there were no senatorial elections. Under the original design of the Constitution, Senators were not directly elected by the people. Rather, they were chosen by the state legislatures. Still the Constitution uses the language of "elected" in Article I, Section 3. The Constitution also uses the language of "elected" to refer to Senators in the Ineligibility Clause:
"No Senator or Representative shall, during the Time for which he was elected, be appointed to any civil Office under the Authority of the United States, which shall have been created, or the Emoluments whereof shall have been [i]ncreased during such time."
Indeed, that provision uses both the language of "elected" and "appointed."
Moreover, under the original design of the Constitution, if a Senate vacancy arose when the state legislature was in recess, "the Executive thereof may make temporary Appointments until the next Meeting of the Legislature, which shall then fill such Vacancies." Notice the language: "appointments," and not "elections."
The Seventeenth Amendment changed the method by which senators were chosen. Now, senators would be "elected by the people." But the Seventeenth Amendment still allowed the state executive "to make temporary appointments."
In 2021, Seth Barrett Tillman and I discussed the Governor's powers to fill Senate vacancies in an article about insurrection:
"The Constitution authorizes a governor to temporarily fill a senate vacancy by appointment. In these situations, it is not clear that the inhabitancy qualification applies, as temporary senators are not 'elected.'"
As often happens, Seth and I write about obscure textualist issues that only become relevant much later. And so it has come to pass, once again.
Co-blogger Steve Sachs describes the latest controversy from California:
According to his official website, California Gov. Gavin Newsom on October 1 appointed Laphonza Butler to the Senate, to complete the term of the late Sen. Dianne Feinstein. Butler was apparently a Maryland resident as of very recently, but according to Newsom's office she plans to re-register to vote in California before her Wednesday swearing-in. . . .
Until recently, Butler wasn't an inhabitant of California. She lived there much of her life and apparently still owns a home there. But since then she moved to Maryland, where she made political donations and worked for a political committee.
Newsom's office has suggested that it'll be enough for Butler to re-register to vote in California before being sworn in on Wednesday
Steve suggests that the residency requirement attaches to both Senators who are elected by the people, and appointed by the Governor:
The phrase "when elected" is broader than that, because it was adopted as part of the 1788 Constitution, when each state's senators were "chosen by the Legislature thereof" (Art. I, § 3, cl. 1), usually one legislative house at a time. So "elected" here means a whole process of official choice, not only some first-past-the-post vote by the general citizenry. . . .
The Seventeenth Amendment was adopted "in lieu of" the "chosen by the Legislature" requirement, as well as "so much of paragraph two of the same section as relates to the filling of vacancies." But it left the qualification requirements in Clause 3 intact. So the "when elected" requirement is still good law, and its most natural reading would include whatever form of official choice establishes a person as a putative senator.
I disagree. Elected means elected. And appointed means appointed. Both types of language (elected and appointed) language were used in the Constitution of 1788, and in Seventeenth Amendment.
And Seth offers an explanation for why the Framers may not have imposed the residency requirement on temporary Senate replacements:
It is not difficult to understand why the Framers of both the original Constitution of 1788 and the Seventeenth Amendment made this choice. The nation was geographically vast. It would take time to hold an election and, similarly, it would take time for a temporary appointee from one's home-state to physically move to the national capital. The capital itself, over time, would become the home to many former representatives, former senators, and other former senior government officials. It would make sense for states to be able to draw on these individuals as a temporary matter to fill vacancies—even where such appointees had no home-state residence. Where a candidate was filling a full six-year term, one wanted him to have home-state connections. But where a candidate was filling a temporary trust, it would make sense to loosen residence requirements so that a state could immediately have senate representation. For similar reasons, the strictures of the Ineligibility Clause applies only to elected members, and not to temporary senators holding short appointments.
Once again, a textualist reading of constitutional qualifications may lead to results that some view as unsatisfying. Of course, such consequentialism begins with a specific starting point: qualifications should be enforced rigidly. There is a different potential starting point: qualifications should not be enforced rigidly, but rather the democratic process should prevail. (Hint, hint, Section 3, Section 3). Let us not forget that the Senate has issued oaths to several members who were under the age of 30. Seth and I make this point in our tome on Section 3:
History supports this understanding of congressional practice. William Claiborne of Tennessee, who was born in 1775, was elected to and then began serving his two-year House term in 1797. He was only 22 years old. The House did not disqualify him. Claiborne was re-elected in 1799, when he was still not yet twenty-five. It was only some time during his second term that he finally reached the age of twenty-five.
Other examples abound. In 1806, Henry Clay of Kentucky was elected to the Senate by his state legislature. He took the oath, and he began serving while he was still twenty-nine years old. In 1816, the Senate administered the oath to Armistead Mason of Virginia, who was elected by the state legislature to a Senate term to fill a vacancy. The unexpired term would stretch about a year. At the time of Mason's election, he was twenty-eight years old. His elected term ended in March 1817, and he was still several months shy of his thirtieth birthday when his term ended. In 1818, the Senate administered the oath to John Henry Eaton of Tennessee. At the time, Eaton was only twenty-eight years old. According to the Senate Historical Office, "Apparently no one asked John Eaton how old he was."
Laphonza Butler better hope that the other Senators are textualists like Tillman and me. Or perhaps no one asks where she lives.
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Interesting about those elected and voting before they were eligible. Did not realize everyone was so lax.
Agreed. But the amazing thing is the gov could not come up with an actual Californian that measured up to his requirements.
So much for the line of thought of a Senator objecting to seating the Senator-select from CA, based on residency. That question has now been answered: Nope.
Logically one would think the eligibility requirements are the same, but they did have to point that out explicitely for the VP, who might become president.
And if they viewed it as a lesser, temporary appointment, similarly deliberately call out reduced requirements. Barring the latter, I would assume the former, to reduce weasel behaviors sneaking things around other things.
"The Royal Society for Sneaking Things Around Other Things shall now come to order..."
https://youtu.be/LFrdqQZ8FFc
Its only an Ish-yew if you're a former Auburn Foo-bawl coach from Florida,
I mean Alabama
https://www.washingtonpost.com/politics/2023/08/10/tommy-tuberville-floridas-third-senator/
https://www.msn.com/en-us/news/us/alabama-sen-tommy-tuberville-actually-lives-in-florida-report/ar-AA1f75wH#image=1
and as anyone who's lived in Ali-bama or North Florida knows, the Florida Panhandle is referred to commonly as
"LA" (Lower Alabama)
and no, there's no "Upper Alabama" we're not Silesia
Frank "I love LA"
Her entire political life was in Cali.
If the formalists win, so be it. Sometimes the law is an ass.
But I have a hard time thinking she will be representing Maryland not Cali.
Did not read the OP. Feels good.
She will register to vote in CA today and be accepted by the Senate.
Yogi Berra would have had a more clever way to put it.
Only state residents may register to vote in California. I wonder if she will be required to prove residency (and if so, how), or will she be just waved through?
I hear you.
If you look up CA requirements, it takes 9 months to establish residency, and one can't register until one is a resident.
My guess is that the law does not apply to a Newsom favorite
We shall see. We shall see.
"CA requirements" for what? Where are you getting this from?
You can find it on the website of the University of California.
You can find it in Pub 1031 of the CA Franchise tax board.
"To establish residence, you must be physically present in California with the intent to make California your permanent home, and you must demonstrate by your actions that you have given up your former residence to establish a residence in California"
"Residence" for state tax purposes has nothing whatsoever to do with residence for federal constitutional purposes.
You point is meaningless, David.
If CA does not define who a resident is for the purpose of registering to vote, who does? Every element of the State of CA seems to have the same definition, that you prefer to ignore. Moreover, Art. I says "inhabitant" and she sure does not live there.
But if your point is that no Dem senator will refuse to seat her, then I agree. But be honest.
Just to help you along David,
"If you meet all the other requirements to vote in California but become a California resident less than 15 days before the next election, you may still be able to register and vote. To do this, you must visit your county elections office at least seven days before Election Day. You will be required to sign an oath saying you are eligible to vote in California and have not voted in the same election in any other state. " Form the CA SoS.
So let's see if Butler showed up to sign an oath at a CA election office.
But regardless, she'll be seated
(Where does it say "nine months"?)
All she has to do is appear, declare and swear.
A Constitutionalist would probably require her to not be an "inhabitant" of another State at the time of her "appointment", but those who take a less disciplined view of the Constitution would probably say it doesn't matter (especially because Newsom could simply re-appoint her every day for the next month).
There are clearly more important hills to die on than this one, but I still think it's worth following the Constitution if that is what you claim to do.
Clearly not, else you'd know it actually said that under a textualism approach there's no barrier to seating her.
You've shifted from poorly skim reading to proudly not reading at all. What a chucklehead.
For historical language, when the 17th century KJV translates St. Paul to use the word “elect”, he clearly did not mean “voted into position.”
FWIW
My favorite example from the KJV is usage of the word "bark" -- as a tree covering, the resonance of a dog, a small boat, et c.
The Greek word is εκλεκτους - "eklektous", (from whence "eclectic") - hence with a meaning of "chosen" or "selected". And indeed at the time of the KJV, "elect" had that connotation (and fwiw etymology). Only later did "elect" develop the primary connotation of "chosen by voters".
Is this article suggesting that the clause:
"(i) attained to the Age of thirty Years, and (ii) been nine Years a Citizen of the United States" has been overlooked historically and this may justify overlooking another requirement? If I understand this line of thought, Deng Xiaoping may purchase a house, register to vote in CA and the "nine years a Citizen of the United States" could be dismissed based on historical errors or what not?
“Laphonza Butler better hope that the other Senators are textualists like Tillman and me. Or perhaps no one asks where she lives.”
This fucking guy. Big mad.
He's not mad, he's mocking her.
On the other hand - - - - - -
https://reason.com/volokh/2023/10/02/is-sen-to-be-butler-eligible-to-represent-california/#more-8250209
'shall be a senator' seems like when they are sworn in rather than when they seek to hold the position.
Did you try reading the whole thing?
Who cares? Democrats have enough votes to seat her. There will be no consequences. Law and precedent are not unambiguously against them.
She's a triple play! Afro-Amurican, XX, and Gay! (not that there's anything wrong with that, but would anyone really want to see Christ Christie and Mitch the Turtle tongue kissing?)
now if she was only handicapped,
I'm sorry, "Differently Abled"
Frank "None of the above"
She is a deranged psychopathic leftist, so is mentally disabled enough of a disability to qualify?
Anyone still wondering why this white, male, disaffected, right-wing blog is unwelcome at strong, mainstream law schools?
I don't find this argument very convincing.
It's interesting that Article 1 Section 3 uses the word "elected" in "who shall not, when elected, be an Inhabitant of that State for which he shall be chosen" because that implies that "elected" here does not mean "elected" in the sense that we currently understand it. Because Senators were chosen by the legislature.
Since "elect" can, and always could, simply mean "choose", that argues that that is what "elected" means here.
Why use "elected" rather than "chosen" in Art 1.3 ? Maybe because "elected" in the sense of "chosen" would cover both legislature's choosing, and the Governor's choice of a temporary appointment, while using "chosen" in echoing the legislature's choosing might be read as limiting the condtion to the legislature's choosing, excluding the Governor's.
In any event, Blackman's trumpeting that he's the textualist is silly. His own analysis of the text shows that "elected" does not, in this context, mean what he wants it to mean.
I don't find your argument at all convincing. Senators were formerly elected by state legislatures. "Elected" and "chosen" can be used interchangeably in many contexts.
But the constitution — both the original and the 17th amendment — make clear that the governor is appointing a replacement senator, not "electing" one, and "elected" and "appointed" are not interchangeable.
Your argument relies on the notion that elected = chosen, and appointed = chosen, and therefore elected = appointed. But that's not the way English works.
[never mind, I found what I overlooked]
No.
1. Article 1 Sec 3 states that the Senator (pre 17A) is "chosen" by the legislature. It is not specified as to how this choosing is to be done. The legislature can do it by lot if it likes.
2. Thus Sec3.3, when it uses "elected" cannot mean "chosen by voting" since the Sec 3.1 does not require that. So it must just be used in its sense as a synonym of chosen.
3. When the Governor appoints a temporary Senator that Senator is necessarily "chosen" by the Governor. The temp's name does not appear on whatever form the Governor signs, by magic. Thus "chosen" also includes chosen by the appointing Governor. And thus, in it's elected = chosen sense, elected includes appointed temps.
4. "elected" = "appointed" is your mistake. "Appointed" is here a subset of chosen, as is "elected by voting". And thus both are also subsets of "elected" in its synonym-of-chosen sense.
Even if your 1-3 are right, #4 is the same error I pointed out above.
If "elected" and "appointed" are both subsets of chosen (to use your phrase), that does not mean that elected and appointed are the same thing.
You're being more than usually obtuse.
"Elected" and "appointed" are not the same thing. That is your own fantasy at work. I'll go slowly.
"elected" has two meanings. The wider meaning, which I shall now refer to in capitals is simply a synonym for "chosen."
Thus "ELECTED" = "chosen."
The narrower meaning, which I shall now refer to in lower case, means chosen by voting, thus :
"elected" = "chosen by voting"
"elected" is therefore a subset of "ELECTED", and of "chosen."
"appointed" as used in Art 1 Section 3.3 is another example of "chosen". The temporary Senator's appointment is the formalisation of the Governor's having chosen him. Appointment is one of the ways a Senator can be chosen, specifically when there is a vacancy. Thus "appointed" here is a subset of "chosen". And thus also a subset of "ELECTED". Not equivalent to "ELECTED" but a subset thereof. All dogs are mammals. Not all mammals are dogs.
But "appointed" is neither equivalent to "elected" nor a subset of it. For "elected" is also a subset of "ELECTED", but it is a disjoint set with respect to "appointed". All dogs are mammals. But no dogs are primates. Even though dogs and primates are all mammals.
Hope this helps.
because that implies that “elected” here does not mean “elected” in the sense that we currently understand it. Because Senators were chosen by the legislature.
And how were they chosen? Might it have been via the legislators voting? The meaning of "elect" is not restricted to votes by the general population.
Actually, it appears that I misread the original comment, so...kindly ignore the above shooting-from-the-hip.
I don't really care about where she lives. I'm more concerned about the fact that she's a deviant who exposes her purchased child to carpet munching.
Yes, you concern is quite evident.
This might be the best thing Governor Calvin Loathsome has done, can't wait for the Barbara Lee/Katie Porter/Pencil Neck Schiff/Lafonda Buttsniffer primary!
The Senate can deem her to have been in California at the time of appointment. Right, Pelosi?
But original context was that appointments would be rather brief, only until the legislature elected a new senator. Now, it can be up to a year (or two?).
It's not like it matters which lefty serves as the senator from california.
I don't think that's right. Many states had part time legislatures (some still do!), so "only until the legislature elected a new senator" need not have been brief at all.
I'm primarily interested in Senate (and House) precedents - though if they seated youngsters who didn't meet the age qualification, I may doubt the credibility of such precedents.
"There is a different potential starting point: qualifications should not be enforced rigidly, but rather the democratic process should prevail. (Hint, hint, Section 3, Section 3)." Amen to that.
It's almost time for Halloween (and elections), so it's a perfect time to toss a golden apple labeled "to the fairest one" toward the electable ... and toward the voters who select them.
If Massachusetts once had three senators, why can't Maryland?
Yet another pointless con law circle jerk.
Well, I guess we'll all just defer to your expertise when it comes to being a pointless jerk.
It would be interesting to find out if she owned a home in Maryland, and if so, in which state she was claiming a homestead exemption. If it was still in California, and she was now renting out that property, is that an issue, or only if she was doing so in both states? Would claiming it in MD be prima facie evidence she was no longer a CA legal resident? (not only no longer physically present but abandoning legal domicile?) Same for State income tax.
In Protestant Christianity, Election is often used to mean ‘Called to serve’, and not a democratic ritual (though sometime a canvas of the church body would be / is taken for decisions). In that case, using ‘Election’ in a overloaded (multiple meanings) for Congress and Senate rituals for selection for service doesn’t seem weird to me.
In practice, I think the controversy will be...
https://1.bp.blogspot.com/-61WxAUUOCHs/XmAg_GV8H0I/AAAAAAABpk4/HfoIgbywnqsw8vAdLGiIf1DU_Kvz6BYVwCNcBGAsYHQ/s1600/1A.JPEG
I have to ask if Professor Blackman would have the same opinion if this was a Republican nominee, nominated by a Republican Governor? I seem to Remember questions about Rick Santorum's residency in the 2006 election and he had closer ties to Pennsylvania.
I have to ask if you read more than a sentence or two of the post such that you'd realize he thinks there's no residency requirement at all for her being seated as a temporary appointment.
Given that, I'm going to go WAY out a limb and say that, yes indeed, he would have the same opinion if this was a Republican nominee, nominated by a Republican governor.
This is the kind of linguistic gameplay that gives healthy textualism a bad name.
Maybe, but if residency is required to register to vote in CA, and if she is presently an MD resident, then she will serve CA as a resident of MD and Senate Dems will not care.
But if she registers to vote in CA without meeting residency requirements, then she is violating the law.
Not really gameplay. But the Senate will not care and the CA AG will not care either regardless of what she does.
Where are you getting this notion that there is some length of residency requirement to register to vote in California?
Where are you getting this notion that there is some length of residency requirement to register to vote in California?
Where are you getting the notion that he said anything about any "length of residency" requirement?
If there's no length of residency requirement, why would there be any obstacle to her registering to vote in California before being sworn in as a senator from California?
If there’s no length of residency requirement, why would there be any obstacle to her registering to vote in California before being sworn in as a senator from California?
There is a "residency" requirement for registering to vote in CA. Nobody said "length of residency".
So ... no obstacle to her registering to vote in California before being sworn in. She has indicated her intention to be a resident there; what else is needed? Change of address form from the Post Office?
So … no obstacle to her registering to vote in California before being sworn in. She has indicated her intention to be a resident there; what else is needed? Change of address form from the Post Office?
I have no idea, nor is that relevant to what I or DN said.
Reasonable to infer a length of residency requirement, or some other requirement that takes time to achieve, if someone asserts that her residency can't be fixed immediately.
I've read that 31 states have durational residency requirements of various lengths to be eligible to register to vote. North Carolina has a 30 day requirement, and it is now being challenged in federal court.
https://www.democracydocket.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/1-2023-10-02-complaint.pdf