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Teaching Notes on Students For Fair Admissions v. Harvard
Michael Stokes Paulsen, Michael McConnell, Sam Bray, and I recently completed and posted the 2023 online supplement to our constitutional law casebook: The Constitution of the United States. (I shilled for the book earlier on this blog -- at the start of the Trump administration -- as "A new constitutional law casebook for our unsettled age," and I think that claim has aged even better than I could have imagined.) The supplement covers four cases from last term -- National Pork Producers v. Ross; Moore v. Harper; 303 Creative v. Elenis; and Students for Fair Admissions v. Harvard.
The supplement is largely intended for users of the casebook, of course, but I thought the notes might be of interest more generally to those who have read and thought about the cases. In particular, here are the notes for Students For Fair Admissions:
Notes:
- Consider the constitutional arguments in these opinions.
Text. Is there a strong textual basis for the majority opinion? Is the phrase "equal protection" sufficiently clear to resolve this issue? Not only does the text say nothing about colorblindness or affirmative action, but it says nothing about race at all. For that matter this case is not really about "protection" either. Does that matter?
Historical Context. Who has the more persuasive account of the historical context of the Fourteenth Amendment: Justice Thomas, or Justice Sotomayor? First consider their specific disputes about the Freedmen's Bureau, or especially about the Civil Rights Act of 1866, which was central to Section One of the Fourteenth Amendment. The Civil Rights Act of 1866 (p. 1369) said that:
citizens, of every race and color . . . shall have the same right . . . to make and enforce contracts, to sue, be parties, and give evidence, to inherit, purchase, lease, sell, hold, and convey real and personal property, and to full and equal benefit of all laws and proceedings for the security of person and property, as is enjoyed by white citizens.
Does the Act require colorblindness, because it gives "the same right" to citizens of all races? Or does it permit special rights for racial minorities, because it uses the rights of "white citizens" as the basline?
Alternatively, consider the broader intellectual framework of the Republicans who wrote and proposed the Amendment. They believed that citizens should be judged by the content of their character and not the color of their skin. (This framework also explains Section Two and Section Three of the Amendment, see generally Richard M. Re & Christopher M. Re, Voting and Vice: Criminal Disenfranchisement and the Reconstruction Amendments, 121 Yale L. J. 1584 (2012).) Doesn't that support the colorblindness approach of the majority? But they also believed that the Fourteenth Amendment was supposed to destroy the basic idea of "caste legislation," of which race discrimination and the Black Codes were a primary example. Does that support the anti-subordination approach of the dissent?
Structure. Does the structure of the Constitution shed any light here? Is it relevant that the Civil Rights Act of 1866 and the Freedmen's Bureau were federal legislation, while the admissions practices here occur at the state level? Is it possible that there is more government power to use race at the federal level than at the state level, and that this would be sensible for the reasons given by James Madison in Federalist No. 10? Or is that "unthinkable," as Bolling v. Sharpe, p. 1482, put it?
Precedent and Practice. There are obviously cases and elements of practice supporting both sides of this case. But as a matter of doctrine, what has the majority opinion done to Bakke, Grutter, and Fisher? Are those cases overruled? If so, why doesn't the majority say so? But if not, how can they be reconciled? How are lower courts—and for that matter college admissions officers—supposed to treat Bakke, Grutter, and Fisher?
Consequences. The consequences of this decision for colleges and universities and their students are of course significant. But what about for society more generally? According to the briefs the Court received, 3/5 of American universities already did not consider race in admissions (partly because many universities are not very selective, and the vast majority of college students go to schools that accept most of those who apply). Does that suggest that this is more of an "elite" issue? Does that mean it is not so important?
One consequentialist argument made by opponents of affirmative action is that it harms the racial minorities it purports to benefit, either by stigmatizing them as unable to succeed on a level playing field, or by sending them to institutions where they are in fact not prepared to thrive. What is the best response to these arguments by defenders of affirmative action? Is it that it does not matter if these things are true? (Why not?) Or is it that these things are simply not true, as an empirical matter? (How do we know?)
2. Practically speaking, what happens next? May colleges still give applicants the option of checking a box that indicates their race? What lawful purpose could that serve? But if not, will the Court's concession about race-based admissions essays effectively lead to the same thing? Why not?
Beyond that, here is the million-dollar question: What happens if a university adopts or changes its admissions policies in a facially neutral way, but has a race-based motivation? For instance, a university might stop using a standardized test that seems to disfavor racial minorities, or adopt something like Texas's "Top 10% plan" that admits the top students from every high school, believing it will indirectly produce racial diversity. If a plaintiff can prove that race was a motivating factor for the change, does that make it unconstitutional? On one hand, if one really believes that discrimination against white people and discrimination against non-white people are constitutionally indistinguishable, then such motivations seem constitutionally suspects. On the other hand, few opponents of affirmative action have wished to take on facially neutral programs such as the Top 10% plan. Is there a principled argument distinguishing race-motivated-but-facially-neutral policies from affirmative action programs? There is likely to be more litigation on these questions, and soon. See Sonja B. Starr, The Magnet-School Wars and the Future of Colorblindness, 76 Stan. L. Rev. (forthcoming 2024).
3. Is Justice Gorsuch right that it would have been easier to resolve these cases on statutory grounds? What is the best justification for not doing so?
Here again are links to the book page and the online supplement.
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Yay on including the pork producers case. One of my biggest complaints about the book (which I've used several times in teaching Con Law) is its non-coverage (except indirectly in some notes) of Dormant Commerce Clause material.
I have a suggestion for another constitutional argument. Given that Harvard customarily admits Asian students in numbers greater than their proportion among the general population, what can justify consideration of the case at all? I suggest that to do that requires a reckoning that some means of determination must have assessed Asians as a category to possess merit in even greater proportion than their already disproportionately high admissions results. If so, why doesn’t that make the notion of meritocracy a tacit underpinning of the decision. What in the constitution can justify enforcement of meritocracy?
Because all Asians are really just the same, part of one Mongol Golden Horde. We all know what happens if you open the doors to the Mongol Horde. And what "general population?" Greater Boston? Massachusetts? The US? Asians are 59.22% of the world's population according to the google machine.
This raises another issue -- the taxpayers of Massachusetts give Harvard a major subsidy in terms of exemption from taxes including the real estate tax*, the sales tax, the capitol gains tax, etc. Harvard even has special rights explicitly granted to it under the Massachusetts state constitution.
So whom should Harvard serve? Back when it was largely the children of the commonwealth, this was all perfectly justifiable. But now that Harvard has become an international institution, why should Massachusetts taxpayers continue to give it this subsidy?
*In Massachusetts, real estate taxes are solely municipal taxes, however this is balanced out to a large extent by state aid so all Massachusetts taxpayers wind up paying for Harvard's exemption.
Harvard itself admitted to discriminating against Asians.
Given that Harvard customarily admits Asian students in numbers greater than their proportion among the general population, what can justify consideration of the case at all? I suggest that to do that requires a reckoning that some means of determination must have assessed Asians as a category to possess merit in even greater proportion than their already disproportionately high admissions results.
A non sequitur of truly Lathropian proportions. Oh right.
If so, why doesn’t that make the notion of meritocracy a tacit underpinning of the decision. What in the constitution can justify enforcement of meritocracy?
Nothing. And it doesn't.
Lathrop hates Asians.
Lathrop hates Asians.
The conservative faux libertarians who operate and support this white, male, Republican blog hate Blacks, gays, women, transgender people, immigrants, Hispanics, atheists, Muslims, Jews, elites, drag queens, educated people, agnostics, and modern America.
Where is the hope?
Keep running Nieporent. Nobody thinks the Harvard case was about anything but meritocracy. But not many of those running away from that discussion have any chance of catching up with you.
Keep banging that drum.
It's perfectly legal under Title VI or 14A to decide to admit students by drawing lots, completely ignoring any consideration of merit, however measured.
But it's not legal to first sift through the lots, discarding lots on the basis of race, so that the final lottery is drawn from a population that meets your desired racial mix for your student population. The illegal step is discarding lots according to race. There is nothing illegal about using a lottery. It just can't be a deliberately racially stacked lottery.
If you choose to use merit based admission, that's fine too. It just can't be a deliberately racially stacked merit based admission.
Yeah, I get it Moore. You like meritocracy, and you think that is a go-to way for the law to judge what constitutes merit and what does not. What you can’t explain is why a private college such as Harvard College is not constitutionally entitled to an opinion and to a policy to promote the notion that merit among black people will be best advanced by facilitating the Harvard education of as many as possible among students ambitious to emulate W. E. B. Du Bois.
Explain to me please, in constitutional terms, why that choice by Harvard should be foreclosed legally, by court order, in favor of a policy to increase an otherwise meritorious ambition to facilitate the Harvard education of as many students of Asian descent who can qualify on some other basis.
What business is it of the Constitution, or of the Court, to meddle in either of those choices by Harvard?
What business is it of the Constitution, or of the Court, to meddle in either of those choices by Harvard?
There’s nothing in the Constitution that is relevant to the Court’s meddling here, except (1) the Court’s Article III powers to resolve Cases and Controversies and (2) Congress’s Article 1 lawmaking powers, which include the powers to pass laws providing for the government to spend money on things specified by, and subject to limits imposed by, Congress.
And one such limitation is imposed by Title VI of the Civil Rights Act, which provides that :
“No person in the United States shall, on the ground of race, color, or national origin, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance.”
Thus the Harvard case has absolutely nothing to do with the Constitution, it is to do with Title VI, which – as you see – says absolutely nothing about meritocracy, but merely forbids racial discrimination in activities receiving federal financial assistance.
Harvard can free itself of these insufferable meddlers on the Supreme Court, simply by declining federal funds.
The University of North Carolina, however, cannot, because it is a state institution and is therefore bound by the 14th Amendment.
I might add, btw, that there is no obvious source of any Constitutional right for Harvard to admit students according to its own standards of a meritocracy, or a lottery if it prefers, since admitting students is not speech, not bearing arms or anything else that is constitutionally protected.
So if the Commonwealth of Massachussetts chose to pass a law requiring universities to admit students according to SAT scores, or a lottery, or by date of birth, it’s not obvious that Harvard would have any constitutional right that it could use to resist. Except by closing down.
"some means of determination must have assessed Asians as a category to possess merit in even greater proportion than their already disproportionately high admissions results."
No, it requires a determination that Asians possess academic qualifications in even greater proportion than their representation. That can be, and was, determined by looking at standard academic criteria of grades, test scores, and extracurricular activities.
In short, academic merit, defined by you is about grades, test scores and extracurriculars. My question, which you evaded, is what in American constitutionalism makes that determination of what constitutes merit legally enforceable against a private school? And thus by implication, legally enforceable everywhere.
As I think another commenter said, the answer to your questions is: Nothing. There's no constitutional right to have your admission to a school determined by grades, test scores, and extracurriculars. If schools want to grant admissions based on some other means, such as alphabetical order or a random lottery, they can. They just can’t use race.
What
Imagine typing this out, not intending to be mocked
Do you really want to annihilate anti-discrimination law to keep Asians below 25% at Harvard?
I am cognizant that the self-proclaimed champions of justice for Asians are getting a lot of support from folks who want an end to admissions preferences on behalf of blacks. If you think supporting admissions preferences for blacks involves annihilating anti-discrimination law, then you are Careless.
"On one hand, if one really believes that discrimination against white people and discrimination against non-white people are constitutionally indistinguishable, then such motivations seem constitutionally suspects."
The author may wish to edit this note for grammar and for obtuseness. The discrimination in the cases discussed is against non-white people. But let's talk about something else and coddle those fragile-minded law students.
I suggest adding Note 4: Fancy Pants University wants more blacks and fewer Asians. How do you advise FPU to chart a constitutional pathway to that goal?
Precedent and Practice. There are obviously cases and elements of practice supporting both sides of this case. But as a matter of doctrine, what has the majority opinion done to Bakke, Grutter, and Fisher? Are those cases overruled? If so, why doesn't the majority say so? But if not, how can they be reconciled? How are lower courts—and for that matter college admissions officers—supposed to treat Bakke, Grutter, and Fisher?
Bakke struck down racial quotas. Nothing in SFFA undermines that decision.
Grutter provided a majority for Justice Powell's Bakke concurrence allowing race to be used as a plus factor in college admissions. I don't see how anything is left of Grutter after SFFA, so I consider Grutter to be implicitly overruled.
Fisher upheld the use of race in the University of Texas's admission policy because the Court believed there was no other way to achieve racial diversity at the school. Fisher might be limited to its facts (race can be used when no other way to achieve a compelling interest) following SFFA, but I wouldn't be surprised for it to be as dead as Grutter.
Bakke struck down racial quotas, yes but also authorized the use of race in admissions for diversity purposes. SFFA directly attacks that.
Justice Powell said that in his concurrence. The Opinion of the Court is the ruling and it struck down racial quotas. Until Grutter, Powell's opinion had no legal force.
You're mistaken. Powell's opinion is not a concurrence; it's the opinion of the court. There were two aspects to his opinion:
1. Quotas are unconstitutional, and Bakke had to be admitted. Four other justices — Burger, Stevens, Stewart, and Rehnquist — concurred with that, making Powell's opinion controlling on that point.
2. The school could consider race as a factor for the purpose of diversity. Four other justices — Brennan, White, Marshall, and Blackmun — concurred with that, making Powell's opinion controlling on that point.
The issue before the Court in Bakke was whether a racial quota by a public college violates the Equal Protection Clause. Powell's discussion of race as a plus factor was extraneous and wasn't binding anymore than if he had discussed any other legal issue. That's why Grutter didn't simply cite Powell's opinion in Bakke.
Bakke was an appeal from a California Supreme Court decision which ordered both that Bakke be admitted and that UC cease considering race in applications. SCOTUS upheld the first order, and reversed the second. These were holdings of SCOTUS, not "extraneous" and "not binding."
If? IF?! As opposed to ... what? Discrimination against A is bad (because he is black); discrimination against B is A-OK (because he is white)? That is your constitutional theory? Incredible...
From the pork part of the supplement: "In broad strokes, the political theory of American federalism is that decisions should be made by the unit of government where costs and benefits will be felt by its own citizens. Thus, an activity with in-state benefits but out-of-state costs, such as a factory causing air pollution that blows across state lines, should be regulated at the national level, but an issue that directly affects only the citizens of a state, such as family law, should be left to the states."
That's a theory far removed from the micromanaging federal government we have today. For example, long ago the federal government decided it needed to regulate parking in Boston to control pollution in Boston that does not affect the rest of the state, much less other states or countries.
The 20th century reinterpretation of "interstate commerce" to mean merely "commerce" is in tension with the rule allowing states to regulate commerce but not interstate commerce.
@Religion and Politics, my life
With regards to your previous comment in the link below:
https://reason.com/2023/09/07/affirmative-action-loses-in-court/?comments=true#comment-10226368
I suggest you read this paper:
https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/12879450/
"The Bell Curve" is also a book of consideration. Give both of them a read.
I think that some students are too attached to their concept of justice. I, for one, don't really understand what was done to them that was so terrible, of course, when a person uses forbidden techniques, not everyone will be happy about it, but that's life. When I was studying, I wrote my https://startup.info/make-room-for-your-dreams-with-the-best-write-my-essay-for-me-services/ essays very clearly and efficiently, even better than anyone else, and it didn't really matter that I used services or any other applications, the final result was important. And now everyone has built up the idea that you have to go through a hard way to make something work, but it's not true, so it's better to save yourself time and nerves.
No, it didn't. Not only that, they won that issue at trial. One of Sotomayor's criticisms of the majority opinion was that it disregarded the trial court's finding that Harvard did not discriminate against Asian applicants.
I don't agree with the trial court. Among various problems the trial court's holding ignores the basic reality that in a zero-sum game a "plus" for applicants in one category is a "minus" for applicants in another. But, that fallacy was baked into authorities starting with Bakke which were binding on the trial court.