The Volokh Conspiracy
Mostly law professors | Sometimes contrarian | Often libertarian | Always independent
What Is The Effect Of The "Judgment" From Harper I?
Chief Justice Roberts, and regrettably Justice Barrett, keep the case alive by succumbing to the writ of erasure fallacy.
There is much to say about Moore v. Harper. I'll start with the threshold issue: was there still a live controversy that the Court could decide? The majority opinion by Chief Justice Roberts answered the question yes; the dissent by Justice Thomas answered the question no. I won't even attempt to describe the tortured legal posture of this case. The Chief Justice somehow made the complicated litigation history straightforward. I think he cut a few corners here and there in the service of simplicity, but he illustrated once again why he is still, pound for pound, the best writer on the Court.
Here, I want to focus on one particular aspect of the mootness inquiry. The Court held that it could vacate the "judgment" from Harper I. Ultimately, the Court did not vacate that judgment, but it could have. Therefore, because the possibility of vacatur existed, the controversy was not moot. But what would have been the effect of vacating the judgment from Harper I? Chief Justice Roberts writes that if the Court vacated the judgment from Harper I, "the 2021 plans enacted by the legislative defendants would again take effect." Roberts further quoted from counsel for the legislative defendants that the North Carolina Supreme Court "overruling Harper I [would] not negate the force of its order striking down the 2021 plans." In these two sentences, Chief Justice Roberts succumbed to the writ of erasure fallacy.
A judgment does not operate against a statute; a judgment operates against parties. Justice Thomas spelled out the "deeper" problems with the Court's analysis.
But the error that actually drives the majority's conclusion is much deeper. The majority evidently thinks that when Harper I held the 2021 Act unconstitutional, it entered a "judgment" affecting the 2021 Act as a statute, independent of its application to the legal rights of the litigants in this case. And the majority thinks that to reverse Harper I 's "judgment" would "negate the force of its order striking down" the Act, thus "alter[ing] the presently operative statutes of North Carolina." But, of course, the judicial power does not "operate on legal rules in the abstract"; it operates on the rights and liabilities of contending parties with adverse legal interests. California v. Texas (2021). The majority's reasoning cannot be squared with the judicial power vested by the Constitution, the case-or-controversy requirement, or the nature of judicial review.
Yes, California v. Texas. I remember that case well. The Supreme Court could not issue any order that ran against the Affordable Care Act. The judgment could only run against plaintiff's who have injuries that can be remedied.
Justice Thomas illustrates the profound problems with the majority's analysis:
Instead, its animating idea (uncritically borrowed from petitioners) is that Harper I 's "judgment" operated against the 2021 Act as a statute. The majority describes Harper I's "judgment" interchangeably as "enjoining the use of the 2021 ma[p]" and "striking down the 2021 pla[n]." It then reasons that reversing that "judgment" would "negate the force of its order striking down the 2021 pla[n]," thus "alter[ing] the presently operative statutes of North Carolina" such that the 2021 Act would "again take effect." . . .
This reasoning bears no connection to the judicial power of this Court or the court below. . . . Thus, a judgment binds the rights of the parties in that case, see Taylor, and it awards remedies that "operate with respect to [those] specific parties," California. In deciding any case, the court must "ascertai[n] and declar[e] the law applicable to the controversy"; this duty, in turn, implies "the negative power to disregard an unconstitutional enactment" in deciding the case. Massachusetts v. Mellon (1923); accord, Nicholson; Marbury v. Madison (1803). But this negative power of judicial review is not a "power per se to review and annul acts of [legislation] on the ground that they are unconstitutional," Mellon; "to change or to repeal statutes," or to issue orders that "operate on legal rules in the abstract," California. Courts of law simply do not render "judgments" that toggle statutes from "operative" to "inoperative" and back again, as if judicial review were some sort of in rem jurisdiction over legislative Acts.
Roberts has no response to Justice Thomas on this foundational point. If Justice Thomas is right, then the case was moot, and should have been dismissed.
I am disappointed that Justice Barrett joined this analysis. The Chief will do jurisdictional pirouettes like Baryshnikov to reach the result he wants. But Justice Barrett knows better.
Editor's Note: We invite comments and request that they be civil and on-topic. We do not moderate or assume any responsibility for comments, which are owned by the readers who post them. Comments do not represent the views of Reason.com or Reason Foundation. We reserve the right to delete any comment for any reason at any time. Comments may only be edited within 5 minutes of posting. Report abuses.
Please
to post comments
Marc Levin raised a good point -- the US Constitution says the state legislatures will draw districts and they've been gerrymandered ever since Eldridge Gerry started it in the beginning.
There's no mention of state courts in the Constitution and hence Roberts violated the plain text of the Constitution.
" . . . the US Constitution says the state legislatures will draw districts . . . . "
Can you cite that Article and clause?
Each district has to have the same population (with some minor deviations sometimes allowed), but the Constitution says nothing about who draws the lines.
.
Article 1, Section 4, paragraph 1:
”The Times, Places and Manner of holding Elections for Senators and Representatives, shall be prescribed in each State by the Legislature thereof; but the Congress may at any time by Law make or alter such Regulations, except as to the Places of chusing Senators.”
Nothing there about each district having to have the same population. And the drawing of districts is obviously included in the allocation to “in each State by the Legislature thereof” of the power to set “[t]he Times, Places and Manner of holding Elections for Senators and Representatives,”
You’re welcome.
The Supreme Court ruled in 1964 that, yes, congressional districts must be approximately equal in population. Wesberry v Sanders. Indeed, the opinion seems to say that Article I alone requires that, although I think the 14th Amendment makes a better argument.
I checked; that case appears repeatedly in that 2780 page CONAN document.
Ed wrote, "The US Constitution says the state legislatures will draw districts. You wrote, "Each district has to have the same population (with some minor deviations sometimes allowed), but the Constitution says nothing about who draws the lines". The subject at both ends is what the US CONSTITUTION says, not what transitory majority of SCOTUS justices has said, and introducing that middle bit here was misleading
The Supreme Court opinion I referred you to concluded that Article I did, indeed, require equal population. That you can't find that meaning is worthless, while the Supreme Court opinion is the law.
Article I also says your literal mindedness is probably a sign of brain damage, and that you should consult a medical professional.
Mark Levin never raises a good point. He's an extreme partisan hack.
I mean, no, it doesn't. It doesn't say anything at all about drawing districts.
No, he interpreted the text of the constitution, as judges do.
Roberts invented a "meaning" out of his preferences, as he tends to do.
"Roberts answered the question yes; the dissent by Justice Thomas answered the question no."
Another way to phrase this would simply be, "Yes."
Josh is really doubling down on the ass-licking. I've heard there's a wing of the Federalist Society that's pushing for appointment of more judges in the Alito/Thomas tradition and I can only assume Josh is courting them.
I'm not seeing in that sentence any copying of the ass-licking or knob-licking you are apparently fond of engaging in. Don't project.
Pushing for actual conservatives on the court would be a good thing.
What the Constitution actually says is,
"The Times, Places and Manner of holding Elections for Senators and Representatives, shall be prescribed in each State by the Legislature thereof; but the Congress may at any time by Law make or alter such Regulations, except as to the Places of chusing Senators."
Drawing district maps is commonly regarded as part of the "times, places and manner", what else would you call it? So, yes, it is expressly delegated to state legislatures, if it's going to happen at all.
But, yes, as far as the Constitution is concerned, state legislatures could just make all the House members "at large", and skip having maps in the first place. If Congress hadn't outlawed doing so.
Which the Constitution expressly allows it to do.
Congress has not, however, outlawed Gerrymandering. Indeed Congress has REQUIRED a version of Gerrymandering to produce black-majority districts.
The US constitution inherently gives the judiciary the power to review. Just because elsewhere in the Constitution Congress has the power to pass legislation on sundry topics doesn’t mean that therefore because it’s not explicitly stated in each specific case that the judiciary has the power, Congressional legislation cannot be reviewed and “struck down”. And this argument extends down all the way,
But some people can’t put two separate sentences together. Call it anti-Socrates idiocy, from the following anti-syllogism.
All men are mortal. Socrates is a man. But as it doesn’t say explicitly that Socrates is mortal, why then, you can’t argue that he is.
Admittedly, when reasoning from the Constitution, often enough the two relevant phrases are not right next to each other hence making the idiocy apparent, but nonetheless, the idiocy still applies.
Blackman can’t bring himself to admit that Thomas’s dissent is an incoherent mess.
As I wrote on a main Reason thread:
The part of Thomas’s dissent dealing with the merits is largely incoherent – as if he knows that there’s no good argument against the majority on the merits, so he’s engaged in that old schoolboy trick for maths proofs – write down the statement from which the theorem is to be proved and then in the next few lines, write down statements that look as though they can be derived from the preceding statement, then finally write down the theorem with a QED after it, and rely on the maths teacher not checking the working.
It’s also worth noting (again) – though Blackman doesn’t, of course – that nowhere does Thomas mention history or tradition.
The State Constitutions do NOT "inherently" give their courts any power to review how their State Legislatures carry out the tasks given to them by the US Constitution. You just pulled the contrary claim out of your ass. As you did your assertion that "Thomas’s dissent is an incoherent mess." The only basis you actually offer for that claim is, "that nowhere does Thomas mention history or tradition", which is absurd as the the actual history and tradition is that State legislatures can Gerrymander to their hearts' content for partisan purposes.
That Thomas doesn't mention history or tradition is a separate point
But his dissent is an incoherent mess.
Your ipse dixit is weightless without any argument by you to back it up. It's not like anyone has any reason to think you actually have a good or any argument, given your past performances.
It’s not like anyone has any reason to think you actually have a good or any argument, given your past performances.
If somebody who knew anything about the law – or indeed, about debate – had made this comment, I’d be forced to consider it seriously. But you? Don’t make me laugh. You can't even provide an original link to the decision.
Meanwhile:
The majority indicates that it does not perceive this distinction between “substantive” and “procedural” rules, see ante, at 23–24,12 illustrating its doubts with a rhetorical question: “When a governor vetoes a bill because of a disagreement with its policy consequences, has the governor exercised a procedural or substantive restraint on lawmaking?” Ante, at 24. The answer is straightforward: The power of approving or vetoing bills is “a part of the legislative process” because it is “a part in the making of state laws.” Smiley, 285 U. S., at 368–369; see also INS v. Chadha, 462 U. S. 919, 933, 951, 954, 957, n. 22, 958 (1983) (repeatedly referring to bicameralism and presentment as the “procedure” or “procedures” of lawmaking).
A Governor’s motives for vetoing a certain bill are irrelevant to the effect of the veto as part of the legislative process, just as the motives that may lead one house of the legislature to reject a bill passed by the other house are irrelevant to the effect of its doing so. Put simply, when this power is conferred on the Governor of a State, it “makes him in effect a third branch of the legislature.” T. Cooley, General Principles of Constitutional Law 50 (1880) (emphasis added); accord, Arizona State Legislature, 576 U. S., at 833 (ROBERTS, C. J., dissenting) (noting that “approving [and] vetoing bills” are “legislative functions”); Chadha, 462 U. S., at 947 (explaining that “lawmaking” is “a power . . . shared by both Houses and the President”); La Abra Silver Mining Co. v. United States, 175 U. S. 423, 453 (1899) (noting that Presidential approval “is legislative in its nature”); cf. 1 W. Blackstone, Commentaries on the Laws of England 150 (1765) (“[T]he king is himself a part of the parliament”). This is a question of who, not what, and thus is “a matter of state polity” as far as the Elections Clause is concerned. Smiley, 285 U. S., at 368.
But substantive constraints on what the lawmaking power can do (gubernatorial approval included) demand an entirely different justification—one that the majority never provides. It does not overrule Cook and Thornton to hold that the power to prescribe times, places, and manners for congressional elections is an original power of the people of each State. Nor does it hold that the people are themselves “the Legislature” to which the Federal Constitution delegates that power. See ante, at 17–18. Indeed, the majority devotes little attention to the source and recipient of the power described in the Elections Clause, notwithstanding their direct relevance to the question presented.
This is gardenpathism. What does a governor’s motives for vetoing legislatiion have to do with the case under consideration, except to add noise?
"You can’t even provide an original link to the decision."
This is a particularly odd claim, inasmuch as I had provided exactly that below two hours before you wrote this out-from-left-field comment.
Apparently you think the long quotation from Thomas' dissent (available in full at my link) demonstrates that "his dissent is an incoherent mess", but your incomprehension at the point he was making merely demonstrates that you are a dim bulb. The question Thomas is addressing is the meaning in Article 1, Section 4, paragraph 1 of "shall be prescribed in each State by the Legislature thereof" and whether that is to be interpreted as solely the Legislature with no interference from State courts. He is addressing the objection to that that a Governor, though not a member of the legislative branch, can veto a districting bill, thus supposedly making it plausible that the judicial branch can intervene as well, since the executive branch can. His response is, as you show, that "when this [veto] power is conferred on the Governor of a State, it 'makes him in effect a third branch of the legislature'” rather than his acting in his power as Executive.
It's sad that you have to go gormless through life, not picking up on things, and drooling slightly.
This is a particularly odd claim, inasmuch as I had provided exactly that below two hours before you wrote this out-from-left-field comment.
No you didn't. You posted a link to Justia, not to the Supreme Court's decision: https://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/22pdf/21-1271_3f14.pdf
I am confident that Justia's page is accurate - but if someone asked me to provide a link to a current SC decision, I would go to the source.
Meanwhile, contrast Thomas's meandering with this new article: https://reason.com/volokh/2023/06/28/steve-calabresi-on-moore-v-harper/
You wrote, "You can’t even provide an original link to the decision", and are now defending that bizarre conclusion ("You can't...") on the ground that Justia's page is, though presumed by you) to be accurate, insufficiently "original". But, of course, I didn't CLAIM that it was "original", I merely supplied it because I had had to find the opinion because Blackman had omitted to supply a link and doing so would save others that trouble. But somehow your dim little mind perceived that I'd linked to Justia rather that SCOTUS' own site as a "gotcha". Which is just bizarre.
What jumps out to me about Calabresi's article is the way he drags in the hobgoblin that the "the Independent State Legislature Doctrine" would supposedly have enabled State legislatures to award electoral votes to Trump even had he lost the vote in those States. But, talk about incoherent derangement, the decision under discussion is about Article 1, Section 4, >>>> PARAGRAPH 1 <<<< which has nothing to do with PRESIDENTIAL elections at all.
The bottom line is that you STILL haven't provided ANY argument for your claim that Thomas' “dissent is an incoherent mess”, or "incoherent" at all. Do you even know what the word means, apart from its imagined utility for you as a slur?
I read Roberts' opinion differently. I understood it to be saying that a vacatur would give North Carolina an option it doesn't currently have, of ceasing the map-drawing process and returning to the original maps immediately... and possibly even mandating that outcome.
There are no "original maps". There is a previous map (one of many, over the years), and it would be "illegal" (per SCOTUS' previous rulings) to restore it, as the population distribution has changed and it does not satisfy requirements previously set for such maps by SCOTUS.
Those original maps, fucktard.
As I already pointed out, those maps are not "original". Merely repeating your error after it's been pointed out to you is not the good look you imagine it to be.
Justice Thomas is in the wrong here. The authorities cited all involve the effect of judgments issued by Article III federal courts. State courts are not organized under Article III but are creatures of state law, and states are under absolutely no obligation whatsoever to limit the power of their state courts to only adjudicating cases and controversies between parties. If North Carolina law provides that a state court judgment has the effect of toggling a statute on and off, that is North Carolina’s prerogative.
The bigger flaw in Justice Roberts’ analysis is that the effect of the Harper I judgment is a question of North Carolina law, not federal law. That question should have been certified to the NC Supreme Court, and the result may very well have mirrored Justice Thomas’s position.
Professor Blackman is taking a sort of geeky look at the technicalities. But one doesn’t have to go under the hood and get ones hands all greasy. The arms-length question is, “does the US Supreme Court’s deciding this case one way or the other make any practical difference to the parties?”
It may make some technical, theoretical, wonky, geeky, under-the-hood sort of difference. But it’s by no means clear it makes any practical difference as an ordinary person, looking at things from the outside, would see it.
JB: "Roberts has no response to Justice Thomas... If Justice Thomas is right [and "no response" implies JB thinks he is] then the case was moot, and should have been dismissed."
So, it indeed makes no IMMEDIATE "practical difference". But it signals the existence of a majority on the Court willing to further grow its already-bloated authority in this area.
"IF North Carolina law provides that a state court judgment has the effect of toggling a statute on and off, that is North Carolina’s prerogative."
Does it?
Exactly my point — I don’t know if it does or does not, because neither Roberts nor Thomas treated this as an issue of state law. What the Court should have done is look to see whether there are any precedents of the NC Supreme Court resolving the issue. If there are none, then either (1) certify the question to the NC Supreme Court, or (2) predict how the NC Supreme Court would resolve the question after duly considering pertinent NC statutes, NC case law, the NC Constitution, etc.
Instead of doing that, both the majority and the dissent did something very non-originalist: treat a state supreme court as if it were an Article III court, apply Article III limitations to a state court judgment without question, and do so without any consideration of original intent/meaning or history.
I don't think so. First, that's a consideration for the merits phase of a decision, and Thomas wanted dismissal for mootness. Second, in the second half of his dissent, where he decides to nonetheless address what he thinks are the errors of the majority on the merits, I don't currently see this "treat[ing of] a state supreme court as if it were an Article III court, apply[ing] Article III limitations to a state court judgment without question, and do[ing] so without any consideration of original intent/meaning or history" that you assert is there. Can you point out where that occurs in his text?
Justice Thomas is in the wrong here. The authorities cited all involve the effect of judgments issued by Article III federal courts. State courts are not organized under Article III but are creatures of state law, and states are under absolutely no obligation whatsoever to limit the power of their state courts to only adjudicating cases and controversies between parties. If North Carolina law provides that a state court judgment has the effect of toggling a statute on and off, that is North Carolina’s prerogative.
I emphatically disagree. SCOTUS is an Article III court, so that limits its jurisdiction, regardless of whether a state court has broader authority.
Suppose a state court of last resort issues an advisory opinion that Statute X violates the federal constitution. That might well be valid under the state's constitution, and bind all lower courts in that state in future cases. But SCOTUS would have no power to review it.
That's the nub here. After the second NC Supreme Court decision, is there anything to be resolved between the parties before SCOTUS? If the answer is NO, then that resolves SCOTUS's jurisdiction for this case.
If North Carolina law provides that a state court judgment has the effect of toggling a statute on and off, that is North Carolina’s prerogative.
That's true, but for the reasons stated, it does not resolve SCOTUS's jurisdiction. The question is whether "toggling" the statute has any effect on the litigants before the court.
Yes SCOTUS is an Article III court, but to determine if it has Article III jurisdiction in this case (specifically, that there is a live case or controversy and it is not moot) it is ascertaining the effect of the state court judgment.
If Moore I “toggles” the statute off, as Roberts seems to hold: the case is not moot, and SCOTUS has Article III jurisdiction.
If Moore I cannot “toggle” the statute off because judgments bind parties and do not negate statutes, as Thomas seems to hold, then the case is moot and SCOTUS has no Article III jurisdiction
The problem is that neither Roberts not Thomas make any attempt to ascertain what North Carolina law actually is on the threshold question of the effect a judgment has on a statute. In fact, as far as I can tell all the authorities Thomas cites involve the effect of judgments issued by Article III courts. This is a major error with both opinions, but is particularly egregious with Thomas because that approach is decidedly non-originalist.
Ah, but North Carolina is the one state in the United States that does not have a statute that provides for its Supreme Court to accept certified questions from federal courts.
So then SCOTUS would need to predict how the NC Supreme Court would resolve the issue, which neither majority nor dissent made any attempt to do so.
ETA: Or better yet, just apply the well-established and rather uncontroversial line of cases providing that no lower court—whether federal or state—has the authority to change a final judgment after SCOTUS grants certiorari and before SCOTUS issues the mandate.
I agree with the majority, on the merits, that state constitutions can impose limits including restrictions on gerrymandering, and state courts can review election laws against them.
But I find myself skeptical that the court’s action would actually redress a live grievance given that the State Supreme Court had reversed itself. If the majority had rebuked the North Carolina Supreme Court for revisiting a case while the U.S. Supreme Court had taken jurisdiction (and thus taken matters out of its hands), that I could understand. But Justice Roberts didn’t go that route.
I an inclined to agree with Justice Thomas that this case was for practical purposes moot, and the Court might better have waited for a live case and controversy before deciding such an important question.
I agree this case gave no cause to determine the review standard. If the US Supreme Court had reached reviewing the NC Supreme Court’s decision, it would have been constitutional under any plausible standard.
The North Carolina Supreme Court is a bad actor. That's really important to this case. It's at the very least ethically unacceptable that a lower, state court bound by the Supremacy Clause is trying to interfere with the jurisdiction of the United States Supreme Court to prevent the latter court from issuing a ruling that it doesn't want issued. And it's totally understandable that SCOTUS, with the benefit of the Supremacy Clause, is going to say "we're not going to let an inferior court do that".
We shouldn't pretend the attempted mootness in this case is at all comparable to other situations where cases are found to be moot. This was a deliberate attempt to interfere with SCOTUS by a partisan lower court.
If that’s so, why didn’t the US Supreme Court discuss it and rebuke the NC Supreme Court for attempting to revisit a case when the US Supreme Court had taken jurisdiction? Why didn’t it say that the NC Supreme Court lacked jurisdiction to do what it did? If Moore 2 was without effect, then it would then be clear that the US Supreme Court could review Moore 1 without any mootness problem. Another plaintiff could trigger a subsequent reversal in the NC Supreme Court, but thhat would not be the US Supreme Court’s problem or an obstacle to its ability to review Moore I.
Moore 2 wasn’t before the US Supreme Court and it had no authority to vacate it as such. But couldn’t have said that since the NC Supreme Court didn’t had jurisdiction to decide it, the US Supreme Court isn’t bound by it, and incidentally nobody else is either.
They didn't have to. They could just ignore an inferior court. In a sense, that's the greatest insult of all- "you can't mess with us, you're nothing".
They did not do that either though. That actually would’ve been the path of least resistance, just ignore Moore 2 and maybe in a footnote cite to the long line of cases, providing that a lower court cannot change a final judgment after it has been appealed. Instead we get this convoluted mess.
For convenience, a link to Moore v. Harper, 600 U.S. ___ (2023):
https://supreme.justia.com/cases/federal/us/600/21-1271/
What poppycock.
Mootness, like standing and so many other invented "doctrines", only limit the SCOTUS's ability to render judgement if the SCOTUS doesn't want to render judgement. The moment SCOTUS does, then suddenly those don't matter.
Thomas knows this just fine, and is just whining because he didn't win.
Odd thought, but if M1 was an interlocutory ruling, vacating that holding now (assuming vacatur runs against nonfinal-but-final/federal decisions, though the jurisdictional statute doesn't mention them) might not even touch the final order in the case absent further proceedings below. Presumably M2 now incorporates all earlier holdings, and that record's not before the court. Just a thought, likely wrong, don't rely.
Mr. D.