The Volokh Conspiracy
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Counting to Five in Texas v. United States
Justice Kavanaugh penned a narrow decision that cobbled together a majority.
In December 2022, the Supreme Court heard the latest iteration of a case styled as United States v. Texas. This dispute concerned the Biden Administration's 2021 memorandum that "prioritized" immigration enforcement. (I'll get into the details later). The trial court found that Texas had standing, and vacated the policy. The Fifth Circuit declined to stay an injunction. The Supreme Court granted certiorari before judgment.
After oral argument, my prediction was that the final vote would be very fragmented. A majority of the Court seemed inclined to rule against Texas, but there was no obvious consensus on why the states lacked standing. Moreover, several Justices seemed uncomfortable with the argument pressed by the Solicitor General that Section 706 of the APA did not support so-called "national vacaturs."
The Court decided this case on Friday. The bottom line is that eight justices ruled against Texas, and only Justice Alito would have affirmed the lower court. But the majority really fractured 5-3. Justices Gorsuch, Thomas, and Barrett found that the plaintiffs lack standing on redressability grounds. They contended that 8 U. S. C. § 1252(f)(1) prohibits injunctions against certain immigration laws, including those at issue in this case. Because the Court couldn't remedy the alleged injuries, the concurring justices found, the Court lacked jurisdiction. But Justice Kavanaugh, writing for the Court, did not rely on redressability. Instead, he found that the plaintiff states did not have a "judicially cognizable" injury--the sort of injury that the federal courts "traditionally" have recognized.
I'll admit, when I first digested this case, I couldn't quite figure out why the majority chose this path. My first inclination was that the Court was trying to close the door on strategic litigation brought by red states against blue administrations. There is certainly some language to that effect, but there is some other language that limits the Kavanaugh opinion to the specific facts presented in this case. (More on the specifics later). Now, my working hypothesis is that the Court simply couldn't come to an agreement on one key issue: could a national vacatur redress a cognizable injury? Justices Thomas, Gorsuch, and Barrett, who cast doubt on the entire notion of a national vacatur, suggest the answer to this question is no. Therefore, Texas has to lose. But the majority does not even touch the redressability prong because they resolve the case on the injury prong. And in doing so, they leave open the question of whether federal courts can issue national vacaturs--and more importantly, whether the availability of a national vacatur can satisfy the redressability prong.
Rather, the majority seized upon a super-specific rationale that will not apply in any other circumstances. That's the only way I can count to five. The Court's progressives do not want to block off progressives using national vacatur to challenge a future Republican administration, and the Chief and Kavanaugh are still partial to D.C. Circuit, which vacates five rules before breakfast. Thus, the majority needed to find a rationale--any rationale really--that would deny Texas standing without trickling into other future disputes. So Justice Kavanaugh latched onto Linda S. v. Richard D. (1973), which he raised during oral arguments.
As promised, more details will come later.
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"They contended that 8 U. S. C. § 1252(f)(1) prohibits injunctions against certain immigration laws, including those at issue in this case."
But, what's at issue in this case isn't an immigration law at all. It's an administration policy of not enforcing an immigration law.
Admittedly, such a policy is related to such a law, but to describe it AS immigration law is almost categorically backwards.
Over and over you get these cases where an administration decides it's going to leave a federal law unenforced, or even violate it, and the courts apply the supremacy clause to stop state challenges, when the supremacy clause literally ought to be the basis of that state challenge!
No, it isn't.
Brett is earnest, if nothing else.
Again, I'll remind you: When Biden took office, Southwest land border encounters were at about 78K per month, and had been in that general neighborhood for years. A month later they were at 101K, and the lowest they've gotten since was 153K.
Southwest land border encounters.
The highest they got the whole time Trump was president was 144K, and that was a one month peak in 2020. Most of the Trump administration they were well under 70K.
You are free to claim that Biden has sustained higher levels of illegal immigration the whole time he's been running things than the worst month during the whole Trump administration by accident.
I'm free to point out that you're a lunatic, and it's been deliberate.
Sorry, I've now drank some morning coffee, Trump's high point was in 2019, not 2020.
Southwest border encounters during Trump administration.
Let me underscore: The idea that this almost step change in illegal immigration rates exactly when the Biden administration took over was coincidence is insane. It was deliberate. Anybody who claims otherwise beclowns themselves.
Texas wasn't challenging US immigration law, not one bit. They were challenging a particular administration's decision to leave it largely unenforced. Federal law was actually on Texas' side.
This is all you have - number went up. Trump was performatively cruel, and Biden is not. That is in and of itself sufficient to explain things.
But never for Brett. Brett has a narrative, and he does not let go of that - suddenly everything proves what he sees. And thus, he will speculate everything else into existence, right down to the law not being enforced. Never mind going that far is patently ridiculous - USCIS is sure doing *something* on the border. And deportations are absolutely still happening.
One might wonder why he's so into the idea that the border is open. Well, he also thinks Dems have a Great Replacement policy. So...it's not coming from anywhere good.
"This is all you have." Evidence, what's the point in producing it? You don't actually care about evidence, after all. You consider evidence worthless.
I repeat, you only beclown yourself by claiming that a huge increase in illegal immigration when Biden took office isn't a result of Biden's policies.
It is not evidence for your thesis.
Things it does not suppport:
-The idea that the borders are open
-The idea that this is caused by Biden policies
-The idea that this is intended by the Biden admin
Those are all you filling in the gaps with...nothing but your own cocksure intuition.
Yes, the idiots and trolls around here are all in on your dumbass thesis. That's on them and you; I'm quite happy to be injecting a modicum of critical thinking into the nativist nonsense arond here.
Of course a massive step change in outcomes when there's a change of administrations is evidence of a deliberate policy change. Short of Biden coming out and announcing, "I'm deliberately flooding the country with illegal aliens, bwah ha ha!", what better evidence could you have? You're just making yourself look stupid here.
How about training videos acknowledging a change of policy at the time?
"Of course a massive step change in outcomes when there’s a change of administrations is evidence of a deliberate policy change."
Unless, you know, there is a whole independent population whose perceptions and culture are not under the administration's control. This is something that has actually been reported on. https://news.ucr.edu/articles/2021/04/07/border-surges-cause-more-complicated-covid-19 captures some of it, but I know there is also some reportin floating out there on the rumor mill among the asylum seeker/migrant communities is another factor.
what better evidence could you have? You’re just making yourself look stupid here.
There are tons of ways to draw causal relationships between policies and events other then your facile correlation. In this case, since the upshot is actions of a group of people, the obvious thing is to check with those people. Not that you care about what they say.
You're just appealing to a possible external cause, when an internal cause coincides exactly with the change. Really, the only reason for proposing that the huge increase in illegal immigration happened exactly when Biden took over, is that you don't want to admit he engineered it.
You’re just appealing to a possible external cause, when an internal cause coincides exactly with the change.
The change is in the behavior of a population. I'm appealing to actual examinations of the population.
People have agency, Brett, even if you think they're invaders.
you don’t want to admit he engineered it.
Of fuck off. I actually think you're wrong.
So, in other words, Biden is stopping more people from crossing than Trump did.
No, because "encounters" DNI "stopping". But you knew that.
Syllabus: “The States of Texas and Louisiana claim that the Guidelines contravene two federal statutes that they read to require the arrest of certain noncitizens upon their release from prison (8 U. S. C. §1226(c)) or entry of a final order of removal (§1231(a)(2)). The District Court found that the States would incur costs due to the Executive’s failure to comply with those alleged statutory mandates, and that the States had standing to sue based on those costs. ON THE MERITS, the District Court found the Guidelines UNLAWFUL and vacated them.”
In other words, yes, as BB says, “what’s at issue in this case [is] an administration policy of not enforcing an immigration law.” That was precisely the finding of the district court, and it is unchallenged by the holding in this case, which was about standing. (“Held: Texas and Louisiana lack Article III standing to challenge the Guidelines.”)
Simply baldly stating that something is false, while refusing to even engage with any evidence, has become a rhetorical tic on David's part. It's to the point where, if he or Sarcastr0 just says something isn't true, without presenting any evidence or argument, your best bet is to assume that it IS true; If they've actually got a case, they tend to make it.
I do find this phenominon a common pattern. I do engage (“Trump was performatively cruel, and Biden is not. That is in and of itself sufficient to explain things”…”USCIS is sure doing *something* on the border”…”And deportations are absolutely still happening.”)
But many of the more fringey on here are very good at ignoring or not processing stuff they don’t wanna. And so they claim I did not engage, and just contradicted. Even as their ranks include reflexive unthinking threadshitting contradictors like gandydancer.
I find it interesting that Blackman states the obvious, how blatantly political many of these decisions are.
SCOTUS, nor many of the courts for that matter, isn't some neutral umpire calling balls and strikes like Roberts pretends.
It's a political machine, twisting logic and reality to impose the policy preferences of their political tribe.
But what’s the alternative? So long as judges are appointed by politicians, the politicians will pick judges who will agree with the views of the politicians appointing them.
The original constitutional scheme had the federal judges nominated by the President, a federal officer, and confirmed by Senators, also federal officers, but originally the Electoral college that chose the President was NOT elected by popular votes, but instead chosen however the state legislatures wanted. Ditto for the Senators, who prior to the 17th amendment were chosen in the manner dictated by state legislatures.
So federal judges were indirectly chosen by state legislatures.
Whatever the downsides in terms of patronage appointments, this did apparently work to its intended end, the federal judiciary kept the expansion of federal power in check. It wasn't until the 17th amendment took the selection of Senators entirely away from state legislatures that the courts finally got out of the way of federal usurpation of power.
The EC never worked like that. Intent doesn’t matter.
Washington was elected with only 6 states holding anything resembling a popular vote. Twice. A lot of Jefferson's EC votes were appointed by state legislatures, too.
I admit the popular vote for President kicked in fairly early, but the original scheme wasn't abandoned THAT fast.
Washington’s elections were hardly elections.
Adams and Jefferson were voted in, with delegates going along with their voters. The supposed wise discretion of the EC Hamilton thought they’d have was gone off the break.
"The EC never worked like that." Sarcastr0's famous indifference to actual facts is on display again. The EC didn't work "like that" for long, but it damned well did at first.
No it absolutely did not.
There was no state legislature flavor in any Presidential election after George Wash, and he had such public acclaim it's pretty hard to argue the state legislatures really had much to say on the issue.
So your Rube-Goldberg 'Presidents via the EC had state equities in mind when selecting judges' is fundamentally incorrect.
States rights aren't what they used to be, but that's more a Civil War thing that whatever this is.
"There was no state legislature flavor in any Presidential election after George Wash"
You didn't even bother to check, did you? I've covered the first two Presidential elections.
The third, Adams vs Jefferson, 1796: 8 states held no popular vote.
The fourth, Adams vs Jefferson, 1800: 10 states held no popular vote.
The fifth, Jefferson vs Pickney, 1804: 6 states held no popular vote,
The sixth, Madison vs Pickney, 1808: 7 states held no popular vote.
The seventh, Madison vs Clinton, 1812: 9 states held no popular vote.
The eighth, Monroe vs King, 1816: 9 states held no popular vote.
You are the king of mistaken ipse dixit, we should just retire that crown.
1820: 9 states
1824: 6 states
1828: 2 states
1832: 1 state
1836: 1 state
1840: 1 state
1844: 1 state
1848: 1 state
1852: 1 state
1856: 1 state
1860: 1 state
1864: During Civil war, no EC votes from Confederacy
1868: And we have our first normal Presidential election "without any legislative flavor", most of a century after Washington.
Yeah, I'm relaying on historians, not your blind numbers and outcome-oriented analysis.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_States_Electoral_College#History
"when electors were pledged to vote for a specific candidate, the slate of electors chosen by the state were no longer free agents, independent thinkers, or deliberative representatives. They became, as Justice Robert H. Jackson wrote, "voluntary party lackeys and intellectual non-entities." According to Hamilton, writing in 1788, the selection of the president should be "made by men most capable of analyzing the qualities adapted to the station [of president]."Hamilton stated that the electors were to analyze the list of potential presidents and select the best one. He also used the term "deliberate." In a 2020 opinion of the U.S. Supreme Court, the Court additionally cited John Jay's view that the electors' choices would reflect “discretion and discernment.” Reflecting on this original intention, a U.S. Senate report in 1826 critiqued the evolution of the system:"
So, your position is that Electors being chosen by state legislatures isn't "state legislature flavor" in Presidential elections? You're going with that?
Just admit that you didn't check when states stopped appointing electors, it's not that awful.
You're missing the point (as always). Yes, some legislatures appointed electors early in the country's history (although I find it puzzling that you fail to note that the denominator kept growing while the numerator kept shrinking until South Carolina was stubbornly left until the Civil War). But the Electors they appointed — like ones popularly elected — were not independent free agents using their own judgment. That was the idea behind the Electoral College, but that never played out in any election.
I'm not missing the point, I'm disagreeing with your mistake about the point I was making. Indeed, it's central to MY point, (As opposed to the point you mistakenly attribute to me.) that they WERE the legislature's agents!
Yes, I will concede that the idea of electors being free agents was instantly abandoned. My thesis that legislatures choosing electors (And Senators) allowed them to indirectly control the composition of the federal bench so as to safeguard state prerogatives is in no way dependent on them being free actors, only on them being chosen by legislatures.
Electors being selected by state legislatures continued to happen until the Civil war. Senators being selected by state legislatures remained a thing until the 17th amendment.
legislatures choosing electors (And Senators) allowed them to indirectly control the composition of the federal bench so as to safeguard state prerogatives is in no way dependent on them being free actors I didn’t pick up on that because that’s…quite an indirectly. State legislators via bound electors select the President, who is then beholden to state legislatures, thus when making judicial appointments appoints states-rights judges??
That’s a logical chain with a *ton* of unsupported assumptions. My favorite is you haven’t even really addressed what kind of judiciary to see if it was as you assume!
Plus the Civil War is an intervening cause as to federal-state relations that you can’t just ignore.
I'm not ignoring it, I'm taking note of the fact that the major expansion of federal power didn't happen until the Senators were being directly elected. The increase in federal power coincident with the Civil war was substantially lesser, and accomplished by explicit constitutional amendment, not judicial 'reinterpretation'.
The increase in federal power coincident with the Civil war was substantially lesser
Holy shit this is dumb as hell. Judicial interpretation of the CW amendments is part of the push. The CW changed the whole federal-state relationship formally and culturally in an evident way that your long and unsupported causal chain does not.
Sarcastro, you do realize, don't you, that anybody reading this exchange can just glance up and see "and accomplished by explicit constitutional amendment, not judicial ‘reinterpretation’."
You do know that, right?
Except you buck the judicial interpretation of the 14A as well. So no, you're pettifogging.
Brett, assuming all that to be true, the judges are still being appointed by politicians even though it’s state politicians rather than federal ones and even though it’s being done indirectly. So the problem I’ve stated still exists. You’ve still got politicians appointing judges on the basis of their views. And not everyone agrees that preventing the expansion of the federal government is the job of the federal judiciary.
It is absolutely the job of the federal judiciary to interpret the Constitution correctly, which necessarily implies that it is the job of the federal judiciary to rein in unconstitutional expansions of federal power.
Greater influence by State actors over judicial selection must, because of their self-interest, have that effect. The global issue that the kritarchs will then warp the law in other ways (because, among other things, “the judges are still being appointed by politicians”, but also because of their own interest in their own power) is a different issue, which BB did not purport to address.
I was diagnosing what, IMO, happened, not suggesting a fix.
We already know what the weakness of the original system was: Legislatures will very reliably dump the choice on the voters. My actual proposal for a fix would be to retain Presidential nomination, but hand confirmation to a body composed of states' Governors.
This would require a compromise between state and federal interests to successfully fill a judicial vacancy. It would, however, tilt things towards aggrandizement of executive power, so I'm open to suggestions.
This isn't right even on its own terms. You're not talking about "self-interest"; you're talking about your preferred policies. Look, e.g., at Congress today: happy to abdicate power to the executive branch.
So long as judges are selected by anyone, including voters, those doing the selecting will pick judges who will agree with the views of those doing the selecting.
At least with federal judges the appointments are for life so they serve as something of a stabilizing force to the ever changing and fickle political whims of the moment.
It’s not in evidence that they do. The evidence I see points to their instead amplifying certain political currents unduly, ones not much restrained by time intervals such as "of the moment".
The overriding bias, though, is in favor of the federal government relative to the states. Partisan outcomes are a second order bias at best, compared to that.
Pretty sure the Romans got that from Aaron Sorkin.
BB has modestly (“this did APPARENTLY work”) proposed a hypothesis for why Federal power has become overweening, in response to which you have nothing better than to rebut it than that it is not logically compelled, which he never claimed.
Gasluightr0 does no better, with his evidence-free ipse dixit.
As is always the case, Brett's explanation depends on the bad faith actions of individual actors rather than environmental changes. The growth of the federal government must be explained by the fact that federal judges decided to expand federal power because they were no longer checked by state legislatures. It couldn't be that the federal government expanded because the nationalization and then globalization of commerce and war caused there to be more of a role for the federal government to play.
" It couldn’t be that the federal government expanded because the nationalization and then globalization of commerce and war caused there to be more of a role for the federal government to play."
Which then magically amended the Constitution, but in a special invisible ink only judges can see?