The Volokh Conspiracy
Mostly law professors | Sometimes contrarian | Often libertarian | Always independent
Important Federal District Court Decision on Racial Classifications and Affirmative Action
On Tuesday, in Nuziard v. Minority Business Development Agency (MBDA) federal district court judge Mark T. Pittman issued an injunction against the MBDA's Business Center Program. These Centers may give assistance only to businesses owned by socially or economically disadvantaged individuals. A Business owned by a "Black, African American, Hispanic, Latino, American Indian, Alaska Native, Asian, Native Hawaiian, Pacific Islander, Puerto-Rican, Eskimo, Hasidic Jew, Asian Indian, or a Spanish-speaking American," is presumptively considered to be owned by a socially or economically disadvantaged individual. According to the opinion, and unlike similar federal programs, no individual outside of the designated groups can be eligible, no matter how socially or economically disadvantaged.
Most interesting from my perspective, Judge Pittman focused on the arbitrariness of the relevant classifications:
[T]he Program is not narrowly tailored because it is underinclusive and overinclusive in its use of racial and ethnic classification… It is underinclusive because it arbitrarily excludes many minorityowned business owners—such as those from the Middle East, North Africa, and North Asia. For example, it excludes those who trace their ancestry to Afghanistan, Iran, Iraq, and Libya. But it includes those from China, Japan, Pakistan, and India. The Program is also underinclusive because it excludes every minority business owner who owns less than 51% of their business.
In researching my book Classified, I hoped and really expected to find cases involving two issues that have received very little attention in the relevant academic literature.
First, what happens when a government agency rejects someone's claim to be a member of a designated minority group eligible for affirmative action? The conventional wisdom is that only one such case existed, involving Irish-American firefighters who claimed to be black. That struck me as very unlikely. My intuition was correct. I found a couple of dozen or so additional modern cases in which a party's racial status was adjudicated.
Second, while the Supreme Court has never directly addressed the issue, I thought there must be a fair number of cases discussing whether the classifications a government entity has adopted for affirmative action cases pass constitutional muster under the strict scrutiny test, which requires both a compelling government interest and the law be narrowly tailored to serve that interest. In other words, discussion not simply of whether affirmative action preferences are constitutional in the abstract as serving a compelling government interest, but whether the groups that are included and excluded meet the narrow tailoring requirement.
I was disappointed on that one. Very few cases address the issue, except in passing. The leading case, such as it is, is Peightal v. Metropolitan Dade County, 940 F.2d 1394 (11th Cir. 1991). In that case, the Eleventh Circuit held that while the decision to classify people by race and provide an affirmative action benefit to certain groups is subject to strict scrutiny, once a court concludes that the program itself meets the compelling interest test, if challenged the classification scheme used by the government is subject only to the very forgiving rational basis test.
Peightal seems obviously wrong. It's entirely implausible to me to read the Supreme Court's binding jurisprudence on these matters as saying that once the government demonstrates a compelling interest in racial and ethnic preferences, it can allocate those preferences in almost any way it desires.
I suspect that one reason Peightal came out as it did is that it would be very difficult if not impossible for the government to create a classification scheme for affirmative action that would meet the strict scrutiny/narrow tailoring requirement. The court wasn't prepared to issue a ruling that would call almost all racial preference programs into question, so it punted.
Judge Pittman acknowledged the problem in a footnote: "Fashioning a racial or ethnicity-based policy that is not underinclusive or overinclusive is extremely difficult and almost impossible in a multiethnic country like the United States." The logical inference to draw from this fact is not that courts should ignore the narrow tailoring requirement, but that racial and ethnicity-based policies are almost always unconstitutional.
Judge Pittman's ruling Nuziard called to mind Judge Amul Thapar's opinion in Vitolo v. Guzman, 999 F.3d 353 (6th Cir. 2021),which came out just as I was finishing my book manuscript:
The government's policy is plagued with other forms of underinclusivity. Consider the requirement that a business must be at least 51% owned by women or minorities…
The dispositive presumption enjoyed by designated minorities bears strikingly little relation to the asserted problem the government is trying to fix. For example, the government attempts to defend its policy by citing a study showing it was harder for black business owners to obtain loans from Washington, D.C., banks. Gov't Resp. 15. Rather than simply designating those owners as the harmed group, the government relied on the Small Business Administration's 364*364 2016 regulation granting racial preferences to vast swaths of the population. For example, individuals who trace their ancestry to Pakistan and India qualify for special treatment. But those from Afghanistan, Iran, and Iraq do not. Those from China, Japan, and Hong Kong all qualify. But those from Tunisia, Libya, and Morocco do not. This scattershot approach does not conform to the narrow tailoring strict scrutiny requires.
The stark realities of the Small Business Administration's racial gerrymandering are inescapable. Imagine two childhood friends—one Indian, one Afghan. Both own restaurants, and both have suffered devastating losses during the pandemic. If both apply to the Restaurant Revitalization Fund, the Indian applicant will presumptively receive priority consideration over his Afghan friend. Why? Because of his ethnic heritage. It is indeed "a sordid business" to divide "us up by race."
Congratulations to the lawyers at the Wisconsin Institute for Law & Liberty, who represented the plaintiffs in both Nuziard and Vitolo.
Editor's Note: We invite comments and request that they be civil and on-topic. We do not moderate or assume any responsibility for comments, which are owned by the readers who post them. Comments do not represent the views of Reason.com or Reason Foundation. We reserve the right to delete any comment for any reason at any time. Comments may only be edited within 5 minutes of posting. Report abuses.
Please
to post comments
A "Spanish-speaking American"?
¡Quiero Taco Bell!
Too bad I took French in High School.
And my mother was Ashkenazi rather than Hasidic. Were Hasidi enserfed more than Ashkenazi? In the US?
First, implying that Ashkenazi and Hasidic are mutually exclusive is incorrect. Hasidim are a subset of Ashkenazim.
Second, the category of Ashkenazim you belong to is unrelated to your religious practice. It's called "a shanda fur die goyim."
I'm not religious anyway, but the question remains: Why are Hasidim singled out among Ashkenazi for reparations?
And which Spanish-speaking Americans are not “Spanish-speaking Americans”???
And I find, "Shanda (pronounced SHAWN-deh) is Yiddish for something scandalously shameful." It's not clear what you're saying is that.
I'm Sephardic...does that mean I get three times the credit?
Creo que todo el mundo hablan español. ¿Donde están los baños? Mas cerveza, por favor. What else do you need to know?
Do this with private money? Sure, all day long.
But you just can’t do this with tax money it’s really, really simple.
Wrong. "Can't" doesn't apply when it's been going on for a half-century.
I remember when this came in. They wouldn't accept my self-identification, which was Klingon.
I thought that there was a SCOTUS case where they at least discussed one of these statutory laundry lists of 10 or 15 "disadvantaged groups" but I can't seem to locate it.
OK, here it is. It's Richmond v. Croson:
The foregoing analysis applies only to the inclusion of blacks within the Richmond set-aside program. There is absolutely no evidence of past discrimination against Spanish-speaking, Oriental, Indian, Eskimo, or Aleut persons in any aspect of the Richmond construction industry. The District Court took judicial notice of the fact that the vast majority of “minority” persons in Richmond were black. It may well be that Richmond has never had an Aleut or Eskimo citizen. The random inclusion of racial groups that, as a practical matter, may never have suffered from discrimination in the construction industry in Richmond suggests that perhaps the city's purpose was not in fact to remedy past discrimination.
Thx. City of Richmond [VA] v. J.A. Croson Co., 488 U.S. 469 (1989):
https://supreme.justia.com/cases/federal/us/488/469/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/City_of_Richmond_v._J.A._Croson_Co.
Yes. The difference in Croson is that in Croson, the Court says "why include all of the 'official' minority groups when not all of them even live in Richmond, that shows that the government's claim that it was trying to redress discrimination is dubious." In this case, the question asked is, why include certain official minority groups (plus Hasidim, who pop up now and then) but exclude similarly situated minority groups like Arab Americans?
Professor Bernstein’s argument proves too much. The narrowest tailoring possible is at most the narrowest tailoring the constitution requires. So if Professor Bernstein’s argument that any tailoring narrower than current constitutional categories is practically impossible is correct, then it necessarily follows that current categories are sufficiently narrowly tailored to pass constitutional muster.
So at the end of the day, after lots of leading us on and suggesting otherwise, Professor Bernstein’s entire line of argument, turns out to be an argument in favor of rather against the constitutionality of the current categories.
When it comes to compelling interests, the state does all it must when it does all it can.
Bullshit. If "the narrowest tailoring possible" results in Constitutional violations then the whole scheme is un-Constitutional.
For example, the "separate but equal" formula started on the way to extinction once the Court decided to be serious about the equal part (around 1938). Faced with the reality that separate facilities were in fact unequal, and that separate but equal could not be properly administered in practice, the Court made the right decision in abolishing the doctrine altogether.
If the "affirmative action" exception to Equal Protection is likewise unable to be administered in practice, that's a reason for getting rid of the exception.
(That said, I recognize that the 14th Amendment deliberately applies Equal Protection to the states only, not the feds - what to do about that situation is an interesting question to which I'm still thinking about the answer).
Does this apply?:
"While the Equal Protection Clause itself applies only to state and local governments, the Supreme Court held in Bolling v. Sharpe (1954) that the Due Process Clause of the Fifth Amendment nonetheless imposes various equal protection requirements on the federal government via reverse incorporation."
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Equal_Protection_Clause
For convenience:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bolling_v._Sharpe
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Incorporation_of_the_Bill_of_Rights#Reverse_incorporation
I know they said it, I don’t know if it makes sense.
I have my doubts about substantive due process. I suppose a creative lawyer could use the Bill of Attainder clause to fight nondiscrimination.
to fight *for* nondiscrimination
Makes sense on a policy level, but I don't think it makes sense as honest legal interpretation.
Fwiw, the reverse incorporation argument was post hog invented by Justice Black a decade later. Billing is pure SDP
"Post hog" sounds like a useful joke, somehow.
“SDP”? SCOTUS Dog Poop?
Totally irrelevant. Separate but equal was originally based on rational basis scrutiny, so there was no need for a compelling interest showing. Here, there was a finding the state has a compelling interest. When the state has a compelling interest, the state is permitted to accomplish its goal. The whole point of a compelling interest analysis is that the constitution is not a suicide pact. A state has to be able to accomplish a compelling interest. And it has to be able to do it under actual real-world conditions, not the sort of ideal ones that law professors dream up while gazing at thair navels. That’s what “compelling” means.
For example, no medical diagnosis procedure or treatment is perfect, there will always be people it doesn’t work on. No fire prevention or control method works perfectly either. Trials sometimes result in incorrect decisions. I could go on. There will always be some arbitrariness. Perfect classification is impossinle. So if narrow tailoring requires perfect classification, then basically the state can never have a compelling interest in health, safety, criminal justice, or pretty much anything. The best available method for diagnosis, treatment, fire safety, etc. is always constitutional even though imperfect, and the 2nd or 3rd best is probably constitutional as well.
There is of course no “compelling interest”-exception verbiage in the US Constitution. And what ReaderY is claiming to be a “compelling interest” here is race-based discrimination against the disfavored, absent which the US will have committed “suicide”. And that causes Constitution-violating injury to the disfavored, well, tough luck. Because SCOTUS or some lower court, who have sworn to obey the Constitution, have decided there is a “compelling interest” in saying, “To Hell with the Constitution, we want this.”
"Here, there was a finding the state has a compelling interest."
I'm not sure what "here" refers to, but the linked case that the post was about reaches the opposite conclusion. See the discussion on pages 9 and 10 under the sub-heading "Defendants Lack a Compelling Interest."
Even if there was a compelling interest, I don't see anything in the case law supporting the rule you describe: the most narrowly tailored race-conscious scheme practicable is ipso facto constitutional. Rather, there are circumstances in which a compelling interest may not be pursued by race-conscious remedies at all. Hence the adaptation in university admissions to "holistic" criteria. In practice, such approaches are a usually a smokescreen to obscure what are still largely race-conscious decisions. But they are a response to courts having found that explicitly race-conscious policies are impermissible no matter how narrowly tailored.
ReaderY is obviously correct. Narrow tailoring could never be satisfied if it actually meant exacting, meticulous tailoring.
ReaderY has his head up his ass, as do you, No surprise given the Constitution-be-damed-We-Want-Woke posters involved. No, just because you want to do something doesn’t mean you can inflict un-Constitutional injuries if you can’t find a Constitutional way to reach your desired goal.
That’s wrong but it’s a much better argument than the notion that rational basis applies.
It seems that once a compelling interest is shown, someone arguing the state’s approach isn’t narrowly tailored has to show that a narrower tailoring is feasible. Not just theoretically conceivable, but practically possible in real-world conditions. If a plaintiff can’t show that, if a narrower tailoring isn’t practically possible, then what the state is doing is the narrowest practically feasible tailoring. And if there’s a compelling interest, the Constitution doesn’t require anything more.
I realize your basic strategy has been to accept the precedents jolding that diversity etc. represent compelling interests, but then continually point out flaws in the methods used to achieve it, as a kind of indirect means of preventing these precedents from havimg effect.
As I’ve mentioned in comments on yiur past posts, I don’t think that kind of arguemjt ought to be accepted by courts. All classification schemes are flawed and partially arbitrary. So I think you should be required to point out a better method in order to challenge the existing one.
Once you take the position is that no classification scheme can pass muster, I think the law should hold that you’ve effectively argued yourself out of court. Any classification scheme should pass muster under that argument because you are arguing no more narrowly tailored one exists. In my view the law ought to treat that as equivalent to an argument the current method is the narrowest one available, hence is constitutional. If a plaintiff makes that argument, the court ought to find for the defendant without further ado.
Lots of people use the tactic you’re using. Opponents of the death penalty are a good example of litigation tactics analogous to yours. They argue that every execution procedure out there is cruel and unusual. I would take the same position. If no method is less cruel or less unusal than the current method, then the current method must be constitutional.
But governmental programs that discriminate on the basis of race aren't remotely analogous to the death penalty; The death penalty is explicitly contemplated by the Constitution, the only question being is whether the manner of it is constitutional. The penalty itself can't be unconstitutional.
By contrast, discrimination is expressly forbidden, and the argument is that there's some excuse why that express prohibition shouldn't be enforced in the case at hand. That's an inherently difficult argument to make, and the answer doesn't default to "yes".
ReaderY claims, “I realize your basic strategy has been to accept the precedents [h]olding that diversity etc. represent compelling interests…”
I certainly don’t. “[D]iversity etc.” AREN’T required by the Constitution and therefor cannot be a sound basis for inflicting un-Constitutional injuries, O’Connor’s “hopefully for only 25-years” be damned.
But, are you a really a squish on this or not?
Affirmative action is unconstitutional discrimination on its face. Any decision that fails to outlaw the practice falls short of equal protection under the law. Of course, such simple truth can be erased by years of training in law school.
You read anything about the history of race-based programs when the 14A was ratified?
Do you have other tricks in your sad little collection than claiming someone will find something you like if they just search hard enough?
those programs were for former slaves as a class. Its an important distinction from race based programs
A distinction without a difference at the time. In implementation, the government programs were aimed at blacks.
And blacks were targeted at the time by southern states' black laws without any such distinction either.
It remains a distinction - Blacks who were not slaves did not receive those benefits.
Both you and Queen fail to grasp the important distinction
You're claiming that there were race-targeted federal programs? Even if you buy that, so what? As pointed out above, the EPC only applied to the states until 1954.
Affirmative action is a perfect example of how the left has perverted the Constitution toward their own sick desires, not reality.
That the Equal Protection Clause permits race-based affirmative action is just as irrational as the argument that the Due Process Clause protects the right of Rev. Kirkland to shoot off into his "husband's" anus.
As always, the Volokh Conspiracy offers the best in current conservative legal thinking, from David Bernstein to hoppy025.
Kookland's comments are generally as empty of content as the void between his ears, and this one is no exception.
AIDS never tackles the merits because he can't. He is the living embodiment of the Dunning-Kruger effect.
These are your fans, Prof. Bernstein, and the reason you'll never get a job at a school that doesn't focus on the "disaffected right-wingers" market.
In a completely perverse and pathetic way, AIDS is obsessed with this blog. He is, in his own way, a fan.
On the other hand, AIDS’ handiwork would probably land him in prison in any civilized Western country (for corrupting the integrity of our election laws, basic rule of law requirements, subverting democracy, etc).
It’s also — repeatedly — pointed out to AIDS that 99% of American legal academics COULDN’T even qualify for positions in other academic fields or in law schools in more civilized countries, and how America’s legal academy is a corrupt and politicized pseudo-market, one that’s openly hostile to diversity of thought. Yet he NEVER responds on the merits. He can’t, either, since he hasn’t the slightest idea what he’s talking about. Equally, he doesn’t care to know. Whilst being a duplicitous bullshitting imbecile entails that no one in the rest of the world can or would take AIDS seriously, that, of course, at the same time is the quality which makes him a great American.
Carry on, AIDS. Till your betters Anders Breivik your loved ones.
This insanity needs to end. Govt should not discriminate or pass laws forcing people or businesses to...and that is it. Of course it begs the question of parts of the CRA doesn't it? Which is the real problem..it wasn't really about stopping Jim Crow but the normal political game of enriching certain groups that DC does so well.
Jim Crow was just cover for the true purpose of the Civil Rights Acts - payoffs to black people!
Couldn't have said it better if you were George Wallace!
Enrichment needn’t be restricted to money transfers. Federal ticks like you grow numerous and swollen on cancerous power accretions.
And to the extent that benefits flow to not just the parasites, but to favored constituencies, what makes you think it’s all about blacks? There’s also “… Hispanic, Latino, American Indian, Alaska Native, Asian, Native Hawaiian, Pacific Islander, Puerto-Rican, Eskimo, Hasidic Jew, Asian Indian, [and the][non-Hispanic, non-Puerto Rican?] Spanish-speaking ..,”
Yes, I'm in it for the powah.
You're as shallow as ever!
Note that no one is really defending the law in the OP.
Except in favor of claims and claimants relying on (certain flavors of) superstition, of course.
This is a right-wing blog, after all.
Yeah, if it weren’t we could all just agree to mentally editing that icky “Freedom of Religion” bit out of the 1st Amendment, amIrite?
Freedom of religion does not involve limitless special privilege (to be used as sword and shield, sometimes simultaneously) for claims rooted in childish superstition.
You, AIDS, feign dogmatic commitment to the idea of equality for, and the equality of, various groups and cultures. However, not only is that predicated upon superstitious nonsense, but it’s also so obviously and demonstrably false that you yourself don’t believe its implications. Indeed, you’ve admitted as much on this blog.
Enjoy losing the global culture war, AIDS, in addition to your country. Your ‘liberal-progressive’ comrades will be farmed as soylent green. 🙂
These Centers may give assistance only to businesses owned by socially or economically disadvantaged individuals. A Business owned by a “Black, African American, Hispanic, Latino, American Indian, Alaska Native, Asian, Native Hawaiian, Pacific Islander, Puerto-Rican, Eskimo, Hasidic Jew, Asian Indian, or a Spanish-speaking American,” is presumptively considered to be owned by a socially or economically disadvantaged individual.
As a matter of public policy, factual accuracy and Constitutional law, this policy is insane. EVERY ONE of these categories includes people that are very, very advantaged. Some more than others. And perhaps not in the same proportion as other groups. But the notion that a multimillionaire should receive assistance as someone who is “disadvantaged” because he happens to be one of these groups is laughably absurd.
As for “narrow tailoring,” there is one obvious way of “tailoring” that would be perfectly Constitutional: means testing. Limit the applicant pool to those who are economically disadvantaged, as demonstrated by economic factors, like income, savings, etc.
In other words, help the poor and lower-middle classes, regardless of race or ethnic group. If some ethnic groups are, on average, poorer and thus get disproportional benefits, so be it.
Note that the well more than a majority of the people covered by the preferences in question aren’t black. At least 2/3
The problem (for the left) with the economic disadvantage proposal, at least in education, is that it'll lead to an entirely white and Asian student body. The poorest whites do better on tests than the richest blacks.
I'm starting to think there are precisely two circumstances in which Prof. Bernstein has any tolerance for special treatment . . . and in those two he seems quite fond of special treatment.
Kookland: "I’m starting to think..."
That'll be the day.
I am a pretty regular reader of this blog, and I honestly don't know what you're talking about.
I don't write for the dumbest Volokh Conspiracy fans.
" it would be very difficult if not impossible for the government to create a classification scheme for affirmative action that would meet the strict scrutiny/narrow tailoring requirement."
Which is the entire fucking problem. We should not be treating individuals like they are all undifferentiated masses.
When you say "it" do you mean the government's policy, or my means-testing proposal.
What does that have to do with the 14th amendment?
Explicitly targeted benefits based on status as a former slave, mostly. But we've gone over that before.
Queen almathea 11 hours ago
Flag Comment Mute User
“Maybe not from an originalist perspective seeing as how the same Congress that put out the 14th also passed laws that explicitly targeted benefits based on race."
Queen - you have been repetitively correctly on that claim. Those laws were for targeted benefits for former slaves . that is an important distinction
Except those laws had to do with remedying explicit anti-black discrimination. Like setting up a public school for whites in DC and nothing for blacks.
Queen – again you fail to grasp the important legal distinction.
Because you fail to grasp the important legal distinction, you reach the erroneous conclusions regarding 14A
Queen - those were former slave benefit programs , not race based benefit programs
How many times do you need to be corrected?
"The people who wrote the 14th also passed race targeted benefits which seems odd if they understood the 14th to prohibit that."
Why would they understand the 14th amendment to prevent Congress from passing race-targeted benefits? The EPC explicitly only applies to the states.
Well, obviously for them to not send their best, they have to NOT be an undifferentiated mass. If they were an undifferentiated mass, no matter who they sent, they'd be the same, right?
Yes, it establishes that the federal government wasn't until fairly recently bound by the 14th amendment. "No state shall"... "nor shall any state"; The federal government isn't a state, after all.
I agree that it was naughty of Congress back then to originate an amendment it wasn't bound by, and then proceed to do things the states were forbidden from doing under it.
Doesn't change what the 14th amendment forbade. Just who it forbade.
'I divided this mass into 2 different cohorts. Now I'm an individualist!'
No, it was Trump being racist, Brett.
Queenie is right that Congress was occasionally a bit careless about specifying "former slaves" rather than "blacks", though only where almost all of the blacks would have been former slaves.
They could afford to be, because the amendment they'd originated conveniently didn't apply to them.
How do you know the claim was false?
Sarcastro, Mexican is a nationality. Trump wasn't being racist, he was being nationalist.
And his express position was that governments are SUPPOSED to be nationalist, they're not SUPPOSED to be indifferent to whether people are or aren't citizens of them.