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"What's Missing in the Brackeen Argument: An Indian Affairs Clause"
I was chatting with Prof. Lorianne Updike Toler (Northern Illinois), and she mentioned some thoughts of hers on this subject, based on her recent University of Chicago Law Review article, The Missing Indian Affairs Clause. I encouraged her to write up a blog post, and she kindly passed along the following:
In the November 9th oral argument for Haaland v. Brackeen, which challenges the constitutionality of the Indian Child Welfare Act, Justice Amy Coney Barret's question about the impact of overruling Congress' plenary power over tribes underscores a centuries-old confusion about federal Indian Affairs.
It's not just the Court that is confused. Former Volokh Conspiracy posts on point reveal the deep academic fissures over the historical context of the Indian Commerce Clause. Unknown to the Court and most of academe is the root cause of all the confusion: that the Constitutional Convention initially forgot (and then later intentionally excluded) the Articles of Confederation's Indian Affairs Clause in the Constitution.
As I detail in this University of Chicago Law Review article, Pennsylvanian comparative constitutionalist James Wilson, tasked by the five-member Committee of Detail to draft the Constitution, initially checked off "Indian Affairs" to include as a Congressional power, but then failed to get the power into his final draft. He was not the only one to forget. Although the Convention had commissioned the Committee to include all the Congressional powers in the Articles of Confederation (where Indian Affairs featured), Edmund Randolph also forgot to include the power in his initial sketch of the Constitution. Odd, considering a Cherokee chief had met with him that summer in Philadelphia and he was then directly concerned with settler-tribe disputes on Virginia's frontier as the state's governor. It was John Rutledge, the South Carolinian chair of the committee, who remembered, scrawling the power in the margin of Randolph's sketch. Yet he later forgot this power in combing through Wilson's final draft, and it was reported out of the Committee sans Indian Affairs.
But James Madison remembered. It was he who suggested Indian Affairs be inserted back into the Constitution. This time, the Committee of Detail intentionally excluded the Clause, instead inserting "Tribes" into the Commerce Clause. No one objected. This despite that at least three Convention members had just spent their ten-day break (for the Committee of Detail to meet) fulfilling their congressional duties in New York. There, impending tribal wars in Virginia and Georgia's Creek disputes were discussed. Presumably, the Convention thought Congress' previous powers under the Article's Indian Affairs were addressed by the Indian Commerce Clause and other provisions of the Constitution—such as the power to declare war and peace and the president's shared Treaty Power.
What does this mean for the Constitution? Put simply, Congress has no Indian Affairs power, and therefore no plenary power. Early assertion of this power was justified under the tripartite powers of Indian Commerce, War and Treaty Powers. But Congress halted tribal treaty-making long ago. If it wants to re-assert power over tribes beyond the Commerce Clause, the President needs to begin treating with tribes again.
And what of any residual power? As I propose in my article linked above, the residue reverts to the sovereign tribes. Tribal sovereignty is to tribes what federalism is to the states. Powers not reserved by the Constitution to Congress and the President revert to the tribes.
This would mean that Congress lacked constitutional power to pass ICWA, however well-intentioned. ICWA was adopted in an attempt to prevent Native American erasure by allowing the community to intervene in adoption and foster cases to ensure tribal children are raised in Native American families. ICWA grants the child's tribe exclusive jurisdiction over custody proceedings and other intervention privileges. Further, it establishes placement preferences first in favor of any family members, then the tribe, and then any Native American families regardless of tribal membership.
Unless related to its Indian Commerce power (and heaven forbid if we have arrived at treating adoption of babies and children as commerce), Congress has no power over Native American adoptions. On this basis, ICWA might be unconstitutional wholesale. However, to the extent ICWA respects tribal sovereignty and refers cases to the child's tribe, it may be constitutional under a structural reading of the Constitution: The combined intratextual references to tribes as the constitutional unit of recognition— "tribes" under the Commerce Clause and the presumption that Indians are not taxed under Art I. sec. 2 of the Constitution—together with the parallel analog of federalism vis-à-vis states may permit Congress to proactively proscribe federal and state deference to tribal power. But as Congress has no plenary power over tribes and Native Americans as a people, it cannot specify adoption placement or other preferences. The Court should so rule in Brackeen.
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"The Congress shall have Power ... To define and punish...Offences against the Law of Nations"
If Congress members believe that state interference with tribal adoption laws invades the sovereignty of Indian nations, couldn't Congress just make a law saying that such interference is an offense against the law of nations?
Where, exactly, does Congress get power over the indian tribes at all? It can regulate commerce between MA & NY but can't control them...
So this means Lone Wolf v. Hitchcock, 187 U.S. 553 (1903), was wrongly decided? I need to read this.
"President needs to begin treating with tribes again"
Nonsense. They are not foreign nations.
Tribe members are American citizens by act of congress. If the nonsense view in this post is correct, Congress had no such power. Does she sign off on that?
I don't see why Congress wouldn't have had that power.
I don't see where Congress *got* that power...
Huh? Congress has the power to make laws regarding naturalization.
We should not overlook 18 U.S. Code § 1091 - Genocide.
https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/18/1091
Several states had child adoption policies that with respect to Indian children explicitly violated 18 U.S. Code § 1091(e) -- the rabunek dzieci clause.
It took the US so long to ratify and enable the International Convention for the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide (CPPCG) in US law because a number of prominent Congressmen realized that US practice with respect to blacks and Indians probably corresponded to the international capital crime of genocide.
Congress today has the power to legislate a requirement for the states to certify that state adoption rules be consistent with § 1091(e) and constitutionally a state may not violate an international treaty, which the federal government has ratified and enabled.
At the time of the enactment of ICWA the United States had not yet ratified the CPPCG.
The US signed the CPPCG on 11 Dec 1948 and ratified it on 25 Nov 1988.
I’m sorry but as bad as what was done in the US and CA, it was NOT “genocide.” “Genocide” is what Hitler did to the Jews, Stalin did to the Ukrainians, the Turks did to the Armenians, and somebody did to somebody in Rwanda. “Genocide” is an attempt to remove a gene from the population via mass murder.
It is somewhat vicariously embarrassing to read something so wrong as a misunderstanding of the crime of genocide on a legal blog.
If genocide were merely mass murder, why would another crime need to be defined? Mass murder already constitutes a crime in national and international law.
I helped Martin McMahon with Al-Tamimi v. Adelson, 916 F.3d 1 (D.C. Cir. 2019). While I don't fully agree with McMahon's historical summary, McMahon persuaded the Court of Appeals for the DC Circuit to reverse the dismissal of al-Tamimi v. Adelson in Trial Court.
Americans often confuse genocide with mass murder and believe incorrectly that Holocaust-like systematic killing is required for genocide. If kings still ruled in Europe and if the King of France decreed that all Jews in France must convert to Christianity or leave, the King of France would have committed the crime of genocide of the French Jewish religious group
• even if no one died on account of the King’s decree and
• even if 70 years later the size of the population of French Jewish exiles was larger than the size of the French Jewish population at the time of the decree
because the King of France exterminated or physically destroyed the Jewish religious group within the territory of France.
The Nazi regime perpetrated genocide before it evolved to mass murder. Likewise Zionists started with a plan of genocide and are evolving to mass murder.
Modern Jews (including me) all descend from non-Judeans that converted to Judaism.
One may make the same point by stating that Greco-Roman Judeans never left Judea (and became Palestinians), but Judaism went forth from Palestine. The Roman Exile is a metaphor for the transformation of Judaism from the religion of Judea into a religion that only the descendants of non-Judean converts practice.
When Zionists make their ridiculous and false claim of Rabbinic Jewish indigenousness, they imply that Palestinians are not indigenous and therefore illegitimate in Palestine. Delegitimizing Palestinians is a method to legitimize and to normalize genocide of Palestinians.
Zionist delegitimization of Palestinians is exactly congruent to Nazi delegitimization of Jews.
With respect to Jews, the Nazi period can be divided into two phases:
a. the genocide phase,
1. during which the Nazi government attempted to induce Jews to leave German controlled regions “voluntarily” and
2. which took place from January 1933 until the start of the Holocaust in 1941; and
b. the mass-murder phase from the start of the Holocaust in 1941 until the defeat of Germany in 1945.
As soon as the Nazis took power in Germany in January 1933, they put a tremendous amount of effort into delegitimizing Jews in Germany (and in any territories coming under German rule). This effort was meant to legitimize and normalize genocide of Jews. While Nazi genocide during the 30s was like Zionist genocide of Palestinians today mostly confined to making conditions of life so miserable for the victims targeted for genocide that said targeted victims would “voluntarily” (under pressure) leave their homeland, Nazi genocide of Jews culminated in the Holocaust. It is reasonable to extrapolate that ongoing genocide of Palestinians will culminate in mass murder of Palestinians.
Depraved and evil Zionist colonial settlers in Palestine have planned dispossession and replacement genocide of Palestinians since the 1880s. Depraved and evil Zionist colonial settlers in stolen Palestine have perpetrated genocide since Dec 1947. The genocide has never ended.
"and heaven forbid if we have arrived at treating adoption of babies and children as commerce"
What a stupid statement. Of course adoption is interstate commerce, a person would have to be a blind, prejudiced academic to believe otherwise. And doing so does not deman the process or families or children. It simply recognizes that adoption, like almost all other activity, has a business side to it.
Why can't we have somewhat intelligent commentators?
Merriam-Webster gives sexual intercourse as the third definition of commerce: https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/commerce
If you’re going to rely on expensive readings or dictionary meanings to argue about this, I mean.
One definition of commerce would be to restrict it to an economic basis -- and a lot of people would do that. In that case, this is not interstate commerce.
On the other hand, some people -- particularly those in the civil rights movement -- held that mobility of persons was a form of commerce and hence the Ollie's Diner case. Under that concept, adoption definitely would be commerce.
On the third hand, a lot of people (myself included) believe that the civil rights cases were wrongly decided -- that the court reached the right decision in outlawing discrimination, but it ought to have used the 14th Amendment's enforcement clause instead of the commerce clause to reach it.
Money changes hands and then the baby changes parents. How is infant adoption anything BUT economic activity?
"Wanna buy a previously-owned infant?"
Yes, but who changes the baby?
Question. Does the Constitution give Congress the power to simply annex a foreign country and make if federal territory? Consider Hawaii. Was Congress prohibited from simply conquoring it by force? Could it acquire Hawaiian territory only through a negotiated treaty? Was Hawaii’a “bayonet constitution,” whereby the US fomented a coup in Hawaii for the purpose of facilitating annexation, a constitutionally valid procedure?
Does the United States always have to physically invade and foment physical coups to get a treaty agreeing to what Congress wants when the tribe objects? Why can’t it work like fillibusters, where Congress simply stipulates this as having been done without having to go through the actual physical motions?
Is conquering an invalid way to increase territory?
I'm not sure invading dictatorship to create freedom is wrong.
Declaration of Principles of International Law Concerning Friendly Relations and Co-operation Among States in Accordance With the Charter of the United Nations, G.A. Res. 2625 (1970) (“No territorial acquisition resulting from the threat or use of force shall be recognized as legal.”); Third Report on State Responsibility: Report by Special Rapporteur James Crawford, at 23, para. 410 (2000) (“States may not recognize as lawful, for example, a unilateral acquisition of territory procured by the use of force, even if the use of force was arguably lawful.”).
But of course, Congress has no obligation to follow international law. It’s not like the Supreme Court is goimg to take a case and declare the Mexican war or the Spanish American war or for that matter the Hawaian coup or the various Indian wars unconstitutional. Congress’ power is plenary.
My point is that there doesn’t have to be any treaty ending a war – the United States can just take.
Same with Indian affairs.
"If it wants to re-assert power over tribes beyond the Commerce Clause, the President needs to begin treating with tribes again."
Could the president do that? What effect would the 1924 Indian Citizenship Act have on the US government's ability to resume treating with the tribes?
Well I'd like to see Wickard reversed, but I don't see regulating indian adoptions under the commerce clause as any more of a stretch of the commerce clause than dozens of laws upheld under the commerce clause in the past.
And of course Congress is not bound by the 14th amendment either.
I think the Indian adoption law is ridiculous and cruel, but not out the bounds of what the courts have recognized as congress' authority, alas.