The Volokh Conspiracy
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"Why Not the Right to Earn a Living?"
In today's Golden Glow Tanning Salon v. City of Columbus, the Fifth Circuit, in an opinion by Judge Edith Jones, joined by Judges James Ho and Cory Wilson, rejected an Equal Protection Clause and Takings Clause challenge to COVID lockdowns. This is a straightforward, and in my view a clearly correct, result under existing law; but Judge Ho had an interesting concurrence (which cited, among others, our own David Bernstein and Eugene Kontorovich):
The Supreme Court has recognized a number of fundamental rights that do not appear in the text of the Constitution. But the right to earn a living is not one of them—despite its deep roots in our Nation's history and tradition. Governing precedent thus requires us to rule against the countless small businesses, like Plaintiff here, crippled by shutdown mandates imposed by public officials in response to the COVID-19 pandemic. Cases like this nevertheless raise the question: If we're going to recognize various unenumerated rights as fundamental, why not the right to earn a living? …
A principled approach to the Constitution can take one of two forms: We can enforce only those rights that are expressly enumerated in the Constitution. Or we can recognize a broader range of fundamental rights, including those not expressly stated in the Constitution, by appealing to some principle not explicit in the text.
The Supreme Court has taken the latter approach. It has long said that it will recognize "those fundamental rights and liberties which are, objectively, deeply rooted in this Nation's history and tradition, and implicit in the concept of ordered liberty, such that neither liberty nor justice would exist if they were sacrificed." …
Under the Court's approach to unenumerated rights, we privilege a broad swath of non-economic human activities, while leaving economic activities out in the cold. Scholars have suggested, however, that this may get things backwards. After all, if anything, "the right to pursue callings and make contracts … have better historical grounding than more recent claims of right that have found judicial favor."
For over a century before our Founding, English courts protected the right to pursue one's occupation against arbitrary government restraint. This right emerged out of the struggles between the Crown and the courts over the problem of monopoly—a term that was understood at the time to mean any "company insulated from competition by a special legal privilege which barred others from competing." The Crown attempted to confer special privileges by allowing only a select few to practice certain occupations. English courts responded with hostility to such efforts. For example, Lord Chief Justice of England Edward Coke observed that "the common law abhors all monopolies, which prohibit any from working in any lawful trade." Eventually, Parliament enacted the Statute of Monopolies in 1623, prohibiting monopolies while allowing exceptions for patentable inventions.
This aversion to monopolies was brought to the American colonies. The Massachusetts Body of Liberties of 1641 contained an express prohibition on monopolies, stating that "[n]o monopolies shall be granted or allowed amongst us, but of such new Inventions that are profitable to the Countrie, and that for a short time." And later, members of the Founding generation agreed on the fundamental importance of the right to pursue one's occupation. Benjamin Franklin wrote that "[t]here cannot be a stronger natural right than that of a man's making the best profit he can of the natural produce of his lands." George Mason authored the Virginia Declaration of Rights and included an express provision securing "the enjoyment of life and liberty, with the means of acquiring and possessing property, and pursuing and obtaining happiness and safety." Mason would later oppose the Constitution precisely because he feared that, absent express protections, "Congress may grant monopolies in trade and commerce." In his writings to Thomas Jefferson about the Bill of Rights, James Madison noted that monopolies "are justly classed among the greatest nuisances in government." And Jefferson agreed. In his public and private writings, Jefferson "attach[ed] as much importance to the English constitutional immunity from grants of monopoly as he did those privileges and immunities which eventually appeared in the First Amendment."
Similar sentiments were expressed in the years leading up to the Civil War and the Reconstruction Amendments. In his debates with Stephen Douglas, Abraham Lincoln emphasized the fundamental importance of the right to exercise one's labors: "In the right to eat bread, without leave of anybody else, which his own hand earns, he is my equal and the equal of Judge Douglas, and the equal of every living man." Representative John Bingham, one of the primary drafters of the Fourteenth Amendment, later explained that "our own American constitutional liberty … is the liberty … to work an honest calling and contribute by your toil in some sort to the support of yourself, to the support of your fellowmen, and to be secure in the enjoyment of the fruits of your toil." The Supreme Court echoed these sentiments, observing that "[t]he right to work for a living in the common occupations of the community is of the very essence of the personal freedom and opportunity that it was the purpose of the [Fourteenth] Amendment to secure." Truax v. Raich (1915). See also Meyer v. Nebraska (1923) (recognizing the right "to engage in any of the common occupations of life").
[* * *]
The First Amendment guarantees the freedom of speech and religion. But the meaningful exercise of those freedoms often requires the expenditure of resources. The Fourth Amendment secures the people in their houses, papers, and effects, and the Fifth Amendment protects property from taking without just compensation. But it's virtually impossible for most citizens to obtain property without an income.
In short, the right to engage in productive labors is essential to ensuring the ability of the average American citizen to exercise most of their other rights. So it's not surprising that various scholars have determined that the right to earn a living is deeply rooted in our Nation's history and tradition—and should thus be protected under our jurisprudence of unenumerated rights.
But that is for the Supreme Court to determine. See, e.g., Pet. for Writ of Certiorari in Tiwari v. Friedlander, No. 22-42 (U.S.). In the meantime, governing precedent requires us to affirm.
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Serious questions: how would an effective Amendment to protect “the right to pursue callings and make contracts” read? Has one ever been seriously presented? Are there any “legitimate” advocacy groups with such an Amendment on their legislative agenda?
...and if there were such an amendment would it have been grounds for a different outcome?
For 700 years, quarantine practice was to lockdown the infected. Democrat locked down everyone to destroy the market, and the economy, to prevent the surefire re-election of Trump. Back in Feb., 2020, the village of Vo Euganeo tested 3000 residents, and quarantined the 300 infected people for 2 weeks. Half of the infected had no symptom. It ended the epidemic in the middle of an epicenter.
The Courts of the US did nothing to stop this greatest crime in history. Lockdowns around the world dropped the world GDP by $4 trillion, and likely killed 100 million people by starvation. The tech billionaires of the US scored $1.7 trillion. Those of China scored $2 trillion. The lockdown, the masks, the wiping of surfaces, all quack garbage. Biggest fraud score in human history. Biggest mass murder in history. The Courts of the US did nothing about it.
I sued NJ in federal court. I lost the case because it was mooted. NJ backed down, and rescinded the lockdown. That saved thousands of lives.
Volokh agrees with a decision that is lawless, quackery, and killed people.
Wasn't the Lochner decision based on the protection of economic rights like this? (Of course, SCOTUS then repudiated Lochner, but that suggests that it likely did have legal protection for a substantial amount of time).
Why would an amendment be necessary? We already have one in the form of the, unfortunately usually-deprecated, 9th Amendment.
In my view - admittedly not recognized authority - one of the Primary Natural Rights is the right to "performance of productive labor". (See
https://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=3334716) I'm curious to see the arguments of Professors Bernstein and Kontorovich that are apparently cited in the opinion but it seems it only was uploaded to the CA5 site after I started composing this comment; I'll review it after I submit this.
Natural Law and Natural Rights were well-recognized as a concept at the time of the Founding. To me it seems hubris to give them such short shrift and second class status.
If anyone is interested in the cited articles of Professors Bernstein and Kontorovich I can provide them the PDFs thereof.
The first article, however, was fairly easily located; simply searching on "126 Yale L.J. F. 287" will yield the URL. The second article, Eugene Kontorovich, Lochner Under Lockdown, 2021 U. Chi. Legal F. 169, 182 (2021), though, required a bit more work. I had to go to the UoC Law School site and then go to Journals -> Student-edited Journals -> The University of Chicago Legal Forum in order to locate and download it.
Both are fairly-long and, as usual, scholarly, so I have not had time yet to study them.
An amendment is necessary because the legal community are hostile enough to economic rights, (And the people selecting judges are hostile, too, so that's not going to change.) that they'll have to be dragged screaming and kicking into respecting them.
Wrong again: lockdowns are takings because people have a right to their own labor; see: https://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=3567003
People have a right to their own labor, but do they have a right to use their labor in any manner they choose? I can apply my labors in any number of ways the government deems illegal, are they all considered takings? Growing marijuana? Manufacturing unregistered NFA firearms? Armed robbery?
I submit that such a right ranks high on the list of those that ought to already be recognized as covered by the 10th Amendment.
And so is a farmer's right to feed himself by his own efforts, as violated by Wickard v. Filburn 80 years ago today.
Under the Court's approach to unenumerated rights,
That would be "take a vote", see if some unenumerated right gets 5 votes.
we privilege a broad swath of non-economic human activities,
That's what's gotten 5 votes in modern times, yeah.
while leaving economic activities out in the cold.
Right. Just not 5 votes there. Could change, just like RvW changed.
There was mention of the " unenumerated rights," Are there reasonable articles that suggest which of these may be questionable by the current court?
Note: I suspect that there are other Reasonably questionable interpretations, such as that of the Commerce Clause. Again, are there reasonable articles that suggest how these would be re-interpreted?
But what exactly does "earn a living" mean in this context? As an original matter, throughout history, and today?
Today it means something like participation in the market based economy. Which for most human beings means trading labor for wages.
Originally it might have meant combining labor with nature to make food or shelter.
But incumbent claims on property by previously born human beings (or their ancestors/progeny) means that very few human beings can be just born and use some apparently unused piece of earth to make food or shelter. Rather, they must "earn" a living by serving some incumbent.
A more fundamental right might be the right to exist in the physical space that one consumes. But that can often be a crime, because of incumbent property rights or government code about "public" spaces.
It's fundamental because a newly born human being will always exist in the space they consume until they die and decay. Nothing anyone else has to say about it can change this.
Volokh is wrong again: lockdowns are takings because people have a right to their own labor; see: https://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=3567003
As all lawyers are, Volokh is a pro-government denier. Lockdowns are quackery, and not justified by any medical necessity. They are crazy after 700 years of quarantining the infected, not the normal. Lockdowns are false imprisonment without a criminal charge. They also increased the death rate of the locked down.
Posting this repeatedly won't make this any less flimsy an argument. You'll notice that this paper is long on philosophy and short on law.
Great comment, bruh. Genius, bruh. People have a right to not be locked up when they have committed no crime.
I doubt that a right to earn a living would translate into a ban on lockdowns. It's more likely to result in additional welfare and maybe UBI. So, let's do it!
Agreed, any right to earn a living will always be secondary to the multitude of "livings" the government already deems illegal, such as prostitution, any licensed occupation practiced without a license, and of course "nonessential" jobs during a lockdown.
"A principled approach to the Constitution can take one of two forms: We can enforce only those rights that are expressly enumerated in the Constitution. Or we can recognize a broader range of fundamental rights, including those not expressly stated in the Constitution, by appealing to some principle not explicit in the text."
I agree, although some may argue that only the former is principled in terms of adhering to original meaning.
appealing to some principle not explicit in the text.
Right to privacy, maybe?
I agree, although some may argue that only the former is principled in terms of adhering to original meaning.
So, the original meaning of the 9th Amendment was that it means nothing?
No. The short answer is that if the Constitution as a whole is properly construed, the 9th, the 10th, and even amendments 1-8 are truisms. Hamilton: "For why declare that things shall not be done which there is no power to do?"
But the truisms are there to clarify, reassure, and reiterate.
Madison: "It has been objected also against a Bill of Rights, that, by enumerating particular exceptions to the grant of power, it would disparage those rights which were not placed in that enumeration; and it might follow by implication, that those rights which were not singled out, were intended to be assigned into the hands of the General Government, and were consequently insecure. This is one of the most plausible arguments I have ever heard against the admission of a bill of rights into this system; but, I conceive, that it may be guarded against. I have attempted it, as gentlemen may see by turning to the last clause of the fourth resolution."
Scalia: "the Constitution's refusal to "deny or disparage" other rights is far removed from affirming any one of them, and even farther removed from authorizing judges to identify what they might be, and to enforce the judges' list against laws duly enacted by the people."
Larry Tribe agrees: "It is a common error, but an error nonetheless, to talk of 'ninth amendment rights.' The ninth amendment is not a source of rights as such; it is simply a rule about how to read the Constitution."
Of course, the very strict interpretation of exclusive enumerated powers that is contemplated by original meaning has long been disregarded by SCOTUS.
In modern terms, although it somewhat misstates things, I think the 9th supports judicially enforceable rights but only against actions of the federal government.
There is a massive chasm between the issue of federal judges evaluating actions of the federal government, and the issue of federal judges supposing authority over States. This gets all but ignored now.
Griswold dissents:
"The Ninth Amendment, like its companion, the Tenth, which this Court held "states but a truism that all is retained which has not been surrendered". . . was framed by James Madison and adopted by the States simply to make clear that the adoption of the Bill of Rights did not alter the plan that the Federal Government was to be a government of express and limited powers, and that all rights and powers not delegated to it were retained by the people and the individual States. Until today, no member of this Court has ever suggested that the Ninth Amendment meant anything else, and the idea that a federal court could ever use the Ninth Amendment to annul a law passed by the elected representatives of the people of the State of Connecticut would have caused James Madison no little wonder."
"That Amendment was passed not to broaden the powers of this Court or any other department of "the General Government", but, as every student of history knows, to assure the people that the Constitution in all its provisions was intended to limit the Federal Government to the powers granted expressly or by necessary implication. ... [F]or a period of a century and a half, no serious suggestion was ever made that the Ninth Amendment, enacted to protect state powers against federal invasion, could be used as a weapon of federal power to prevent state legislatures from passing laws they consider appropriate to govern local affairs."
Dammit. Something in my reply is creating an error, and I don't see what it is.
I was able to piece what I had written in there a little bit at a time. There was still something creating an error that I couldn't figure out, though.
"Of course, the very strict interpretation of exclusive enumerated powers that is contemplated by original meaning has long been disregarded by SCOTUS."
We'd have to go way beyond "very strict" to effectively limit the ability of Congress to interfere with the right of a Free Press through the Commerce Clause, if nothing else. That is, unless there is something in the Constitution that would prohibit Congress from using even its enumerated powers to, say, prohibit the sale of 'subversive' printed material across state lines.
Hamilton and the other Federalists that thought a Bill of Rights to be unnecessary were wrong. It was never going to happen for the powers of the federal government to be interpreted so strictly, and the Federalists didn't want that anyway.
The Griswold dissents you quote are wrong just like your reading of Lawrence Tribe. The Griswold majority, as far as I've ever seen, was not basing the right to privacy as coming from the 9th Amendment. The 9th Amendment was referenced as justification for continuing to look to see if a right to privacy existed elsewhere, because stopping after failing to find privacy as an explicitly listed right in the Constitution would directly violate the 9th Amendment to that Constitution.
You can argue with Hamilton, but it's beside the point. The meaning of the 9th was in response to this viewpoint, as stated by Madison.
"That is, unless there is something in the Constitution that would prohibit Congress from using even its enumerated powers to, say, prohibit the sale of ‘subversive’ printed material across state lines."
The commerce clause was essentially a free trade pact that allowed Congress to "make regular" interstate trade, not to ban speech or even goods.
The commerce clause was essentially a free trade pact that allowed Congress to “make regular” interstate trade, not to ban speech or even goods.
In this original understanding of the Commerce Clause, Congress would have no power to ban the sale or transport across state lines of dangerous materials, it seems. Whether likely to be used in crimes, devastating to ecosystems and human health if released during transport, or even explosive, Congress can't ban goods from being sold or moved in interstate trade?
The same generation of leaders that ratified the Constitution passed the Sedition Act of 1798, directly challenging the Freedom of Speech and the Press in the 1st Amendment. (Publishers of newspapers at that time would think it quaint that there is this much argument over bias in the news now. Huffington Post, Mother Jones, Newsmax, OAN would probably have been the norm rather than conspicuously biased, most likely.) And which of Congress's enumerated powers did the Federalists and John Adams think gave Congress the ability to fine or imprison anyone for "false, scandalous, or malicious writing" against the government?
Your views on how strictly Congress's powers should be interpreted seem to be your opinions, not the Founders'.
Scalia: “the Constitution’s refusal to “deny or disparage” other rights is far removed from affirming any one of them...
That is not remotely correct. If one is affirming something, then that is the opposite of denying it, and vice versa. Scalia seems to think that there exists a middle ground in between those acts, such that a judge could refuse to affirm a claimed right without denying it.
"There is a right to privacy guaranteed by the Constitution."
That statement is either true or false. If it is false, then judges must not strike down any laws based on them invading an individual's privacy. If it is true, then judges must engage in constitutional analysis of the law in question, existing precedent, and the particulars of the case to decide on an outcome. What middle ground is there for Scalia's opinion to make sense?
"There is a right to privacy guaranteed by the Constitution.
That statement is either true or false. "
The Constitution is just a piece of paper. It doesn't guarantee anything in and of itself.
The enforcement and interpretation of the Constitution was not left exclusively to the federal judiciary. It was up to all of the branches and most importantly and ultimately, it would be up to the states and the people.
So there are many questions, for example who decides, who interprets, and who enforces. But moreover -- who decides, who interprets, and who enforces against whom? Assuming a right to privacy were enshrined in the Constitution, would that have any bearing on multinational corporations, or a nosy neighbor, spying on you? No, it would not. A Constitution governs the government that is constituted by it. Not the people under that government's jurisdiction nor any other party. Do you think when the Japanese bombed Pearl Harbor the victims should have filed a lawsuit in federal court to enjoin these violations of their rights?
What middle ground is there for Scalia’s opinion to make sense?
You didn't answer this question. How, exactly, can a judge not affirm a claimed right without denying its protection to the person claiming it?
...even farther removed from authorizing judges to identify what they might be, and to enforce the judges' list against laws duly enacted by the people.
Judges of all ideologies have "found" rights not listed in the Constitution. Scalia's argument (like Judge Bork and his "ink blot" answer during the hearing on his nomination to SCOTUS) really came down to not wanting some particular rights to exist, but still wanting to find others not listed.
I want to see the full context of the Lawrence Tribe quote. It doesn't support what you are saying as much as you think it does.
Where in the Constitution do you find Parental Rights?
The "right to earn a living" is already protected by the Contracts Clause, (to some extent) the Takings Clause, and the Due Process "life liberty and property" clauses.
"Why Not the Right to Earn a Living?"
I suggest that this from Madison's Federalist 10 bears on the answer:
So strong is this propensity of mankind to fall into mutual animosities, that where no substantial occasion presents itself, the most frivolous and fanciful distinctions have been sufficient to kindle their unfriendly passions and excite their most violent conflicts. But the most common and durable source of factions has been the various and unequal distribution of property. Those who hold and those who are without property have ever formed distinct interests in society. Those who are creditors, and those who are debtors, fall under a like discrimination. A landed interest, a manufacturing interest, a mercantile interest, a moneyed interest, with many lesser interests, grow up of necessity in civilized nations, and divide them into different classes, actuated by different sentiments and views. The regulation of these various and interfering interests forms the principal task of modern legislation, and involves the spirit of party and faction in the necessary and ordinary operations of the government.
To make a right out of, "the principal task of modern legislation," would withdraw that subject from congressional oversight. It would preclude by decree many, "necessary and ordinary operations of the government."
That often-overlooked passage by Madison delivers a succinct answer to any question why the Constitution neither decreed a right to property, nor any specific economic system for the nation. The founders wisely left those questions open on purpose. Which is consistent with this other bit, from the Declaration of Independence:
That whenever any Form of Government becomes destructive of these ends, it is the Right of the People to alter or to abolish it, and to institute new Government, laying its foundation on such principles and organizing its powers in such form, as to them shall seem most likely to effect their Safety and Happiness.
That is a capsule description of the intended role for joint popular sovereignty in the operations of American government. It predated the Constitution, of course, and anticipated not just the government established by the Constitution, but any and every form of government the joint popular sovereign might at some other time prefer.
In the nearly two-and-a-half centuries since, there has never been a time when anyone could claim to understand the operations of economic systems sufficiently to codify any of them, or to manage them with an eye to reaping predictable results. It was wise of the founders to leave such doubtful questions open for adjustment, and to leave them available for continuous experiment. It would be unwise for us to try to do otherwise.
Spoiler alert: that passage is not often overlooked, and does not actually provide an answer to the question, let alone the answer you think it does.
Nieporent — Locke specified property rights. The Virginia Declaration of Rights enumerated a right to property. The omission of that term from the nation's founding documents—both the Declaration of Independence and the Constitution—cannot reasonably be interpreted as anything but a deliberate and considered choice.
It might profit you to spend some time reading founding-era political philosophy, back through Hobbes and Spinoza. Then re-read Madison's notes on the Federal Convention (you have read them, right?).
To do that would disabuse you of any fantasy that libertarianism is a modern restatement of founding-era intentions. Nothing could be farther from the truth. The founders were not modern libertarians. Modern libertarianism is a 20th century invention from scratch, not a continuation from previous political philosophy.
There were some among the founding era anti-federalists—a group which notably did not include Franklin, Hamilton, Jefferson, Madison, Washington, or James Wilson—who did aspire to vindicate a different libertarianish doctrine. It was a doctrine characteristic of that time, but never adopted generally, even then. It was a notion of personal liberty without constraint, exercised by plantation owners, at the expense of everyone else. It purported to make government a subordinate and servant to plantation owners, and to a few fellow members of a related aristocratic class. For more on that, read Edmund Morgan's, American Slavery, American Freedom, and also, his, Inventing the People.
By the way, that always-contested kind of plantation libertarianism survived long enough to play a bit part in the defeat of the South toward the end of the Civil War. Arguably it played a further part in the defeat of Reconstruction, and thus may survive still among the embittered outright racists whom Civil War history has bequeathed to the present. I presume that is not the libertarianism you have in mind.
would stop cold the entire 10,000 year plague of government aka corruption on humanity. Police, and any safety net you imagine, are tucked into one little corner of it. One goes into government to be corrupt and make a nice life for oneself and their family. One gets in the way, then gets paid to get back out of the way.
It has been this way since the first two guys picked up clubs and wandered down to the dirt crosstrail where some farmers were trading, and demanded they pay their fair share.
This is an exacting description of most countries around the world, dictatorships and nominal democracies with lousy economies that never get better. Politicians in such countries often run to end corruption, but that's usually to take out their opponents and slide themselves in as kleptocrat-in-chief.
Krayt — What you offer is a critique of government generally, without even a hint about what should replace what you seem to suppose are problems which everyone agrees are problems. No such agreement exists. You thus have no workable theory of government. Do you intend anarchy, or merely argue it by accident?
What is a “workable” theory of government? Krayt correctly identifies government as being an evolved form of protection racket. You might prefer that there was some institution that would do the few useful things government does, without being a protection racket as well. Does that imply that such an institution must be possible? I don’t see how; The few useful things government does all tend to revolve around the application of coercion, or be enabled by it’s lurking threat. And having the ability to coerce, and get away with it, turns institutions INTO protection rackets, even if they didn’t start that way.
The best I can suggest is that we dispense with all the pretty illusions about the nature of government that government itself teaches in its own indoctrination camps, and recognize it for what it is: A chained monster we can’t do without, but must never, EVER unchain, no matter how persuasively it whispers about how much more it could do for us if not so constrained. Shorn of such illusions, we might less dangerously employ it for those very few things for which it is regretfully necessary, while never leaving off at trying to find some way to shorten that list.
Congrats on discovering Critical Theory.
I look forwards to when you discover the more optimistic Critical Race Theory!
"The founders wisely left those questions open on purpose."
Whether it was done intentionally or not, I certainly agree with you that it was a very good idea to not enumerate the form that economic activity was to be allowed to take.
However, I do think there is a good and proper way to define a human right to self-sufficiency, or at the very least to specifically identify self-sufficiency as being included under an existing right such as the freedom of assembly, etc.
“A principled approach to the Constitution can take one of two forms: We can enforce only those rights that are expressly enumerated in the Constitution. Or we can recognize a broader range of fundamental rights, including those not expressly stated in the Constitution, by appealing to some principle not explicit in the text.”
Here’s the way the Presbyterians dealt with nearly the same issue regarding the “practical” use of Scripture. Their answer was to divide the question into two parts: first, as to the use of the “enumerated” words of the text:
“The whole counsel of God, concerning all things necessary for his own glory, man’s salvation, faith, and life, is either expressly set down in Scripture, or by good and necessary consequence may be deduced from Scripture: unto which nothing at any time is to be added, whether by new revelations of the Spirit, or traditions of men.”
And then, as to the “unenumerated” aspects of the text:
“Nevertheless we acknowledge the inward illumination of the Spirit of God to be necessary for the saving understanding of such things as are revealed in the Word; and that there are some circumstances concerning the worship of God, and government of the Church, common to human actions and societies, which are to be ordered by the light of nature and Christian prudence, according to the general rules of the Word, which are always to be observed.”
Source: https://www.apuritansmind.com/westminster-standards/chapter-1/
The two underlying principles which have always appealed to me are first the formulation that if we do not have some actual text to guide us in any particular matter, we depend on what can be deduced “by good and necessary consequence” from what we do have. And second is the idea that not everything in life rises to the level of having a specific textual application. These are the kinds of things that are merely to be ordered according to “general rules”.
I’m a big fan of stating both what a text does and does not cover. It’s a form of intellectual humility, a rejection of ideology, a recognition that we live in a finite world of limits and not everything in life ought to be circumscribed by our authoritative texts.
Because conservative judges really bungled things in the 19th and early 20th centuries when they kept striking down protections for workers and consumers and consistently sided with oligarchs in the name of freedom of contract.
I basically agree with the conservative position that the constitution contains no right to absolute sexual freedom and liberals and libertarians have no right to use the courts to constitutionalize their social ideologies. But conservatives have no right to do this on economic issues either.
What’s sauce for the goose is sauce for the gander.
Question. Would a right to earn a living require striking down the Civil Rights laws? These laws prevent people who are oriented to work with those of their own sex from earning a living in exactly the same way laws against gay marriage prohibited those oriented to sleep with those of their own sex from marrying.
If the answer “they can just suck it up and work anyway” wasn’t good enough for the marriage equality community, how could it be thought good enough for the work equality community if the right to work is considered a similarly fundamental right? Wouldn’t the Equal Protection Clause similarly require striking down laws that deny same-sex workers their similar right to equal protection?
There's a difference between the right to earn a living and the liberty to do so. If I have a right to earn a living, then I have no responsibility to gain a living - the 'right' pre-exists any effort of mine. Since I have a right to a living, certainly someone has to provide me a job - and the income to go with it. So I'm somehow born with a call on someone else's capital. In the same way, if I have a right to health care, there is someone out there who necessarily has to serve me. 'A living' and 'healthcare' do not float about in the ether waiting to be accessed - both are provided by others. And in both cases, as positive rights they make someone my slaves. By right, I have a call on their services. It's called slavery.
The language doesn't work that way. To "earn" something implies a duty on the earner's part to get someone else to voluntarily agree to pay it. This is why the contracts clause is in the constitution and should be enforced. Lochner was wrongly discarded.
The Declaration of Independence plainly states that we have a right to life. If we have a right to life, it follows that we have a rights to possess and utilize the means to preserve that life; i.e. the right to earn a living. This does not mean the government is required to provide these means but enjoins the government from interfering from these efforts.