The Volokh Conspiracy
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The Freedmen's Bureau as a Precedent for Racial Classifications
One originalist argument in favor of allowing the government to engage in "race-conscious" policies is that the post-Civil War Freedmen's Bureau was established to assist freedmen and refugees, the vast majority of whom were black, as Congress was well aware.
During oral argument on Monday, the plaintiff's attorney replied, "The Freedmen's Bureau for the most part did not draw any racial classifications. It was classifications on the basis of being a former slave or a refugee." A law professor tweeted in response, "It's one of the most ridiculous things I've heard in legal argument."
And yet the distinction drawn by the attorney is not ridiculous at all. Imagine an Allied policy in 1946 to help former inmates of Nazi camps, 95% of whom were Jews. This is, on the one hand, "about" race (the Nazis having considered Jews an inferior race), i.e., race conscious. On the other hand, the policy does not single out Jews for assistance based on them being Jews, as such.
Such would be a clear precedent for the notion that you can give assistance to a group that suffered horrific discrimination, knowing that the group is overwhelmingly composed of Jews. It's a much weaker precedent for the notion that the government can in the future, especially 160 years in the future, single out Jews specifically for special treatment, regardless of whether their ancestors were ever persecuted by the Nazis.
It would be an even weaker precedent that one could single out ANY ethnic or religious minority for differential treatment. In the affirmative action context, state universities give preferences to all black applicants, even if they were born in the Caribbean or Africa--and note that African immigrants may be descendants of slavers rather than slaves. They also give preferences to Hispanics, even if they are "white" (of European ancestry). The connection between these policies and the Freedmen's Bureau precedent is far from obvious.
This raises an important point. Lawyers often refer to the question of whether the government can use racial preferences as a question of whether the government may engage in "race-conscious" policies. But this is a misnomer (and one I am guilty of using myself). Affirmative action policies involve not simply consciousness of how a policy affects putative racial groups, but classifying individuals by race.
Imagine two scenarios. The first scenario involves a local government with three high schools. One high school is 60% Hispanic, 20% Black, and 20% White. The second is 60%Black, 20% Hispanic, and 20% White. And the third is 60% White, 20% Black, and 20% Hispanic. The government decides that sound social policy dictates that each school should be 1/3 each group. It therefore proceeds to classify each student by race/ethnicity, and buses them around town to achieve racial balance.
In the second scenario, a town is deciding where to place two new high schools. If it places the high schools in locations A, one school will be 90% White and 10% Black, and the other school will be the reverse. Under plan B, each school will be 50-50. Even though other factors (cost, convenience, etc) slightly favor plan A, the town considers de facto integration to be a value, and therefore decides to go with plan B.
Both scenarios depicted above involve "race consciousness." But scenario A involves different considerations than scenario B. Scenario A involves classifying individuals by racial and ethnic categories, and changing many of their school assignments based on which group they are classified into. Scenario B involves simply placing a school in one location or another, without anyone's assignment specifically being based on his or her racial classification. If demographics naturally shift over time such that the schools move away from the 50-50 preferred balance, no one is going to be forced to switch schools based on race.
Some might argue that both scenarios involve unconstitutional "race consciousness." But it strikes me that the better view is that the classifications involved in school assignment in scenario A are far more troubling under the Equal Protection Clause. Indeed, my inclination would be to say that scenario A is unconstitutional while scenario B is permissible. Being conscious of how government policy may or may not affect social policy seeking integration or relieving the isolation of specific minority groups is just not the same as dictating an individual's rights and remedies based on a government classification of his or her racial status. The latter is both a much greater intrusion on individual rights, and a much more dangerous power to give the government.
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In the old days when whites and blacks lived on different sides of the rail road tracks, plan A would maintain segregation for years on end.
Much less so today as local demographics change considerably over the years.
Build the schools at locations that are most cost efficient providing good basic education in math reading and science.
Quit being fixated on race and other things that detract from providing actual quality education. (unless you consider transgender, crt, and other crap to be components of a quality education)
Interesting observation at a remarkably white, odds-defyingly male blog that flatters our society's vestigial bigots.
Sorry "Reverend" didn't realize you're a young black chick
In the old days? Any evidence that this still isn't largely the case?
This is a point I have to keep correcting: NO, the Freedman's bureau isn't an example of the authors of the 14th amendment discriminating on the basis of race. It discriminated on the basis of former status as unfree, which happened to be very heavily correlated with race in the slave states, but not so much in the free states.
You want a better case for the 14th amendment permitting racial discrimination, that would be segregated schools in DC. But that doesn't cut in favor of AA...
Stop trying to claim you're "correcting" people when you obviously don't understand the history of reconstruction, haven't read widely in it at all and are clearly just making stuff up.
First of all, the status of slave did not "happen to be heavily correlated" with race...slavery in the South was a race-based institution. Even "free" blacks had restrictions on their abilities, there were no slaves who were considered "white" by law in the South and the immediate reaction to the freeing of slaves in the South was to put Black Codes in place to restrict black people specifically and try to maintain white dominance.
Further, the Civil Rights Act of 1866 is explicit in its race consciousness, which can still be seen in the US Code today:
"All persons within the jurisdiction of the United States shall have the same right in every State and Territory to make and enforce contracts, to sue, be parties, give evidence, and to the full and equal benefit of all laws and proceedings for the security of persons and property as is enjoyed by white citizens, and shall be subject to like punishment, pains, penalties, taxes, licenses, and exactions of every kind, and to no other."
"Enjoyed by white citizens" that is explicit acknowledgement that black people, freed and unfree, did not have the same rights as whites. The Freedmen's Bureau Act of 1866, passed by the same Congress, is closely related with goals.
The Civil RIghts Act of 1866 is a good example of why "race consciousness" isn't the right standard. The 1964 Civil Rights Act was passed in substantial part to redress ongoing discrimination against African Americans. In that sense, it was "race-conscious." But it didn't classify anyone by race, and it bans all race discrimination, not just against members of minority groups, and thus it was constitutionally "race neutral." P
It classified "white" and by extension "not white." In the context of the time, how is that not a racial classification?
In effect, the Act is prohibiting *others* from classifying people by race and then denying the rights on that basis.
From reading your posts, it appears that your expertise in post-bellum Southern history is limited to offering regurgitations of Foner's work, which, while admirable, is not without its weaknesses. For example, it is not true that Southern states immediately enacted Black Codes after the war, though they eventually did so. However, the Black Codes they enacted were copied from various midwestern states, which did enact such laws immediately after the war in order to keep blacks from settling in the states. Segregation laws in the south were put into place over a long period of years, and Jim Crow laws were not fully in place until the late 19th century.
Ironically, many of the first segregation laws were promulgated by northerners during reconstruction because blacks were being excluded from public institutions completely, and so separate institutions were actually better than none at all. This supports your contention that race-conscious laws were not considered unconstitutional under the original understanding of the 14th Amendment. Unfortunately, it also means that Brown v Board was wrongly decided according to an originalist understanding of the 14th Amendment.
I've always thought that the key factor in Brown was recognizing that, regardless of whether "separate but equal" would in theory satisfy the 14th amendment, in practice "separate" was never, and would never be, "equal", because the people demanding "separate" didn't want "equal". They were pursuing separate specifically to make sure blacks got worse.
Rather like literacy tests were constitutionally acceptable if honestly administered, but in practice were never honestly administered.
Eventually the legal system has to recognize realities like this, though with its devotion to formality it can take a very long time.
Perhaps at some point the judiciary will come to a similar understanding of "reasonable gun regulations"? The situation is rather similar.
It discriminated on the basis of former status as unfree, which happened to be very heavily correlated with race in the slave states,
Are you seriously suggesting that this correlation was just sort of a random event, that "just happened?"
No, I didn't say it was some random event. Hardly, and it's silly of you to interpret what I said that way. To put it charitably, as you didn't read me.
Suppose some Aryan Nations dude goes on a rampage at a shopping mall, shooting every black guy he sees. (Or Nation of Islam, every white person he sees, works either way.) When the paramedics show up, they will be mostly treating blacks, (or whites) does that mean THEY are racially discriminating in providing emergency medical services?
No, that's stupid. They're treating the injured, and who was injured was the fault of somebody else's racial discrimination.
Same thing with the Freedmen's Bureau. It aided Freedmen and refugees, irrespective of race, and that essentially all the Freedmen, and many of the refugees, were black, was not an example of racial discrimination on the bureau's part.
No, he is saying that the government should not take race per se into account, but it can do so if it is remedying a specific past wrong and focusing on those wronged.
There is one obvious difference -- free blacks, of which there were some in the North, would not have qualified for assistance by the Bureau. IOW, while slavery very closely correlated with being black, the reverse was not always true.
So the distinction between "black" and "former slave" was a real one both de facto and de jure (or de jour, if that is your preference.)
"but it can do so if it is remedying a specific past wrong and focusing on those wronged."
No. I'm saying that the government must focus on those wronged, regardless of race. If it does so, and the wrong happens to be racially disparate, it might look like the government is taking race into account. As it did with the Freedmen's bureau.
But if it is actually conditioning the aid on having been wronged, it is not discriminating.
Professor Bernstein,
The argument on the other side is essentially one of symmetry. If segregationists can’t do something, then integrationists can’t do that same thing.
Could segregationists apply scenario B and pick the school location based on ensuring as segregated a school as possible ( the location that would make it 90% white in your example)?
I think the symmetry argument says that if segregations can pick the 90-10 location conscious that it will maximally segregate, then integrationists can pick the 50-50 location to promote integration, and more importantly, vice versa.
So if we accept that integrationists can consciously pick the 50-50 location but segregationists can’t pick the 90-10 location - and I would certainly accept that, and I suspect you would - then we are necessarily rejecting the symmetry argument. The constitution isn’t neutral on the subject but puts some sort of thumb on the scale in favor of integration. The question is, how much of a thumb is allowed (or for that matter, required)?
So I will ask you this very general question. Under your theory, how much of a thimb is allowed? How much required? Does the constitution prohibit segregationists from picking the 90-10 location? What if they have good lawyers and are careful never to say anything about race, just use more pragmatic argumenyts (land cost, traffic, etc.)?
Even in 1917 (Buchanan v. Warley), the Supreme Court concluded that a desire for segregation, per se, is not a legitimate government interest, even if the government could come up with, as Kentucky did, some non-racist reasons why they wanted segregation. Not being a legitimate government interest, you don't have to get to any level of scrutiny, it's per se beyond the state's power to intentionally promote segregation. There is no such rule about the government's power to promote nondiscrimination/integration.
The problems start when you purport to be promoting non-discrimination, but your chosen means requires... discrimination.
I was very careful to use segregation/integration. That’s a different pair from non-discrimination/discrimination. But you might have answered the question, at least from your point of view. Perhaps you think the constitution doesn’t care in the slightest whether a policy tends to promote segregation or integration, as long as it doesn’t discriminate. I’m pointing out that segregationist yet facially non-discriminatory policies are a thing. All 4 squares in the 2 by 2 table can be filled.
"Perhaps you think the constitution doesn’t care in the slightest whether a policy tends to promote segregation or integration, as long as it doesn’t discriminate."
Yes, precisely. So long as the government isn't discriminating, the demands of the 14th amendment are satisfied, regardless of how things happen to sort out.
"I’m pointing out that segregationist yet facially non-discriminatory policies are a thing."
Yeah, and I'm pointing out that it's the discrimination the Constitution actually prohibits. Not the "segregation".
Don't do what the Constitution prohibits to fight what it doesn't prohibit.
Remember too that there were Black slave owners.
and White slaves
Find me an example of one white slave in 1861.
the abolitionist newspaper, the National Anti-Slavery Standard, published in New York City, for March 9, 1861, printed an incident of a slave being sent back to Tippah County, Mississippi, from Illinois, who according to the Cairo (IL) Gazette, "claimed he was actually white, and had every appearance of being so." The individual's name, was Henry Lee, alias Henry Jones, the property of a Mr. W.C. Faulkner. The above article declares:
Umm, "LTG"(hopefully you're not practicing law, but if you are, you need more (practice) you are aware AlGore invented this invention called "The Internet(s)" and on the Internet(s) there is this thing called "Google"?
apparently not,
Frank "Computer Literate"
Your posts don't prove your point. These people were considered Black by law. It was a race-based institution. No one who the law recognized as White, was a slave.
I'm sure you know more about this than I do, but the specifics of what you're saying just sound like people in power getting to decide that if you are a slave you are legally black.
It's like saying that in Monty Python and the Holy Grail, only dead people are allowed on the "bring out your dead cart," so if you're on the cart you are dead according to their classifications... even if you're getting better.
This seems to correlate with the "one drop" rule. Even people who looked white but had at least one black, blood relative were legally black.
Do you have a complete list of every slave every held in the US, and their race?
Because if you don't, how do you think you can refute any claim presented to you?
This level of proof requirement ad burden shifting is more proof of your bad faith than anything else.
You don't understand what "burden of proof" means in an argument, as you've repeatedly shown.
Your continuous misuse of terms you don't understand is "more proof of your bad faith than anything else".
Oh, wait, you don't even know what a bad faith argument is, either, so at least you are consistently wrong.
Since you are incapable of understanding the post, I'll make it again using smaller words:
LTG is pretending to demand the identity of any "white slave in 1861". However, he knows that he has no way of verifying or refuting any claim presented. Despite that, do you think LTG would accept any claim made by Dr Ed? And you speak to me of "arguing in bad faith"?
Calling out someone for making a bad argument is not an argument in bad faith. Nor is this "level of proof requirement ad burden shifting" (sic), as I never demanded anything from him nor supported Dr Ed's claim in the first place.
So? Doesn't change the fact that slavery was a race-based institution.
https://chrisdier.com/2014/03/25/white-slaves-of-new-orleans-photos/
OK, LTG, not sure if you've mastered using what we call the "Mouse" but here's more evidence you're full of Joe Biden.
Frank "Malarkey, I mean Malarkey"
Try, "mostly" race based.
No, nearly exclusively so.
The focus in the exceptions is a tell.
The difference between "mostly" and "nearly exclusively" is escaping me. Are there some official numerical thresholds for these, that I could inquire about at the ISO? If not, it seems to me you're just quibbling.
Frank was asserting that there were white slaves, and black slave owners. This was most assuredly true in the 1760's, and still true to a lesser extent in the 1860's. This is a binary question, and Frank is just objectively right about it. Surely his being objectively right should matter to you...
It's true that slavery in America became a much more race focused institution as time went by, but it never did have time to become completely race based.
The materiality of these very few stories is escaping me.
It's throwing bullshit at the wall, and trying to use pedantry to distract from the fact that slavery absolutely was racial to it's core.
The materiality is that he said something true, and was attacked as being wrong.
No, Brett, pedantry is not it's own materiality.
I note that you haven't actually addressed LTG's factual issues, but are using that to pretend this argument is legit.
No, it's not. I don't care who disagrees with a shitpost, nor how technically not untrue it is, it's still a shitpost.
I haven't addressed LTG's claim that slavery was a race based institution, which is mostly factual, for the simple reason that it isn't germane. We're discussing the Freedmen's bureau, not slavery. And, no, that's not a diversion.
As I said in my analogy, if a racist lunatic goes on a shooting spree, most of his victims will be of one race, but the fact that the paramedics are mostly treating people of one race won't be evidence that they're engaged in race based medicine.
The Freedmen's bureau is not proof that race based remedies are consistent with the 14th amendment, for the simple reason that it wasn't a race based remedy. It was a status based remedy, where the status was merely correlated with race on account of prior racist offenses.
Which has to do with the comment 'there were black slaveowners' how?
It doesn't. I view this as a diversion or side discussion. Even if slavery HAD been entirely race based, with every slave as black as coal, and every slave owner an albino, that wouldn't have made the Freedmen's bureau a race based remedy.
Which is a subject discussed all over the rest of this thread; dunno why you jumped in to people dunking on Ed to talk about it.
Why shouldn't I? Dunked on for saying something true; That tends to get my goat.
Sarcastro has shown he is incapable of separating an argument from support for a viewpoint.
I thonk a key reason for my general reaction to your main argument has been that there’s been a long history of opponents of a policy using classification ambiguity arguments to try to get rid of the whole thing. Among many examples, obscenity opponents did this about obscenity, death penalty opponents did this about the death penalty, many other cases.
A key difference between people who seek to improve the classification scheme and people who want to overthrow the whole concept is that improvement advocates generally suggest a way to make it better, whe overthrow arguments tend to ignore the issue and simply atgue the current classification leads to ambiguous boundary cases, based on a false premise that perfect classification is normal and ambiguity is a fatal, interable defect. (As I’ve been arguing, aambiguity is normal and inevitable in just about any classification scheme).
Your recent arguments have somewhat refined this. As I understand it, you accept that the original black/white distinction is reasonable; the problem is throwing everyone else into a few broad categories that don’t really make any sense because people were so focused on the original black/white distinction that they didn’t really give anyone else any thought. The second issue is the tendency to classify people of Middle Eastern origin (and some others) as white.
I actually think there’s a basis for that. The Ottoman Empire was an independent nation that was considered part of the concert of Europe in the 18th and 19th centuries; its history is remarkably different from India, the Phollipimes, and other colonized countries. But you could probably respond and say OK, why not make an explicit colonized/not colonized distinction? Under such a system the Japanese, who were never colonized, defeated Russia, and themselves colonized and exploited other countries in the first half of the 20th century, would clearly be classified differently from Fillipinos.
What I want to point out here is that the issues you’ve pointed out could potentially be used as a means to improve the classification system, not to throw it out. And my question to you is, could you accept an improved system where the most egregious problems are addressed?
If not, I would sggest that, as with opponents of the death penalty, obscenity, etc., the classification ambiguity isn’t the real issue. These other opponents think the whole think unjust to begin with; classification ambiguities merely make the underlyimg injustice especially visible and hence useful illustrations for rhetorical purposes. Perhaps you think the same about racial classifications. If so, it might be better to discuss your real reasons for opposing it. My main message over my comments is that classification ambiguities will exist whether the underlying concept is good or bad, just or unjust. And because of yhis, the existence of classification ambiguities isn’t actually evidence that ybw underlying purpose is in any way wrong. The same classification ambiguities exist for policies we approve of. They simply fail to rile up our emotional sense of injustice. Only when we start out believing the whole thing unjust does our emotional sense of injustice get riled up by the boundary cases.
So if the aim isn’t to develop an improved classification scheme but to throw the whole thing out, why is the whole thing unjust? The existence of boundary ambiguoties says nothing about that, these ambiguities are always there, notice them or not. Why is the whole thing unjust? That’s the real question.
First, I commend you for your thoughtful replies.
My sense is - why not treat people as individuals, rather than worry about how to classify them? Suppose that Meghan Markle and Prince Harry have kids. I dunno her backstory, but let's assume that her ancestors were terribly discriminated against/colonized/exploited/etc.
But she graduated from Northwestern, had a career that put her well above the American socio-economic median (I think???), and her current spouse does not have a family history of being discriminated against/colonized/exploited/etc ... rather the opposite, actually.
How should we classify their kids when it is time to decide how much preference they should have relative to a kid from the projects in S. Chicago/kid from the singlewide in W. VA./Hmong kid?
My sense is that the solution is to ignore the ancestors altogether, and look only at the current circumstances of the individual kid. Life has personally dumped on Betty ... Betty gets a hand up. Life dumped on Fred's granddad, but has been nice to Fred, Fred doesn't get to point to his granddad as justification to give him preference over Betty.
=======
As an aside, note that the problem of awarding preference based on ancestors gets really hard as people intermarry. In 1970 you didn't have a lot of intermarriage between the advocates of Jim Crow and their victims, not the least because of anti-miscegnation laws. Those are gone, and IIUC the kids these days are happily marrying across ethnic boundaries. As time goes on, ancestor based preferences are going to face the insurmountable problem of what to do with the 1/4 Norwegian, 1/4 Somali, 1/4 Hmong, 1/4 Brazilian kid.
Discrimination, which can include crime and other harms, is often based on race or other classifications. We don't live in a post-race society. I think the law shouldn't pretend otherwise.
Also, Meghan Markle did have children--two so far. There are well-documented issues with her being discriminated against in the UK and it's one of the reasons the couple relocated to the US. Which only shows that wealth and privilege aren't enough to prevent these kinds of things.
You should read my book. The primary argument is just that the race classifications we used developed arbitrarily and are not a good fit for most of the uses they are put too, and in some cases are positively counter-productive (as with biomedical research). Only in the last chapter do I discuss what to do about this, and I point out that even people who support affirmative action preferences should be concerned about the issues raised because the classifications are a poor fit for the intended purposes. E.g., I have yet to see anyone explain why a recent immigrant from China, India, Mexico, etc should get government contracting preferences, but they do...
Excellent points.
Left unsaid is Option C, where the schools are privately run, parents choose the school, and government only provides the funding.
Or Option D,where the schools are privately run, and parents choose and pay for the school, because the government didn't previously take the education funds from the parents and skim off a slice for the unions to begin with.
Yeah, no way anyone could sincerely think an educated populace is a coming good and want to subsidize it. Must be a payoff to someone!
Sarcastr0, people can think that a well fed populace is a common good, and yet that the government should not set up a network of soup kitchens.
We can also support programs like food stamps, without thinking that they should be scaled up, along with the taxes to support them, to the point where most people could not afford to eat without using food stamps.
Finally, we can think that, having taxed us to the point where we can't ourselves afford those private schools, the government should not leverage such subsidies to dictate in detail the sort of education most people are permitted.
I've never quite understood this automatic jump from "People need this!" to "Government must be the one to provide it!". But the left seems to make it on basically every topic.
You're arguing against a strawman.
I'm not saying no one can in good faith be against public schooling for libertarian reasons. I'm saying that characterizing public school as a union giveaway is dumb.
That's fair. It's permitting unionization of the government's teachers that's a union giveaway.
So Jima was wrong, and you're taking refuge in facile talking points hoping I rise to the bait.
Lame.
Unions are employee-driven and private industry is loaded with them too. What makes you think a 100% private education system would prevent unionization among underpaid staff, treated poorly by parents, and expected to be the babysitter for other people's kids?
One thing about the 14th Amendment is that some of its requirements bind the federal government and the states, some requirements bind the states alone. For example:
Section 4 forbids both the state and federal governments from paying Confederate debts or compensating former slaveholders.
Section 3 disqualifies certain Confederates from holding state *or* federal office, unless a Congressional supermajority (2/3) removes the ineligibility.
In contrast, the equal protection clause only applies to the states, not the feds.
So we can’t argue that Congress and the ratifiers were confused about the distinction between state and federal. The plain text deliberately imposes equal protection on states only – if they wanted to bind the feds they would have said so.
This is enough for me to deal with federal discrimination – double standardish as federal unequal protection is, it’s not forbidden by the equal protection clause. Such a distinction may be “unthinkable,” as Warren said in Bolling v. Sharpe, but that means politically unthinkable in 1954, not unthinkable in terms of the text.
If we are to speculate about motives (which I would hesitate to do with such a solid textual argument), maybe the framers of the 14th Amendment thought that they would spend too much political capital if they repudiated segregated DC schools or the Freedmen't Bureau.
Nitpicking, but...
"Imagine an Allied policy in 1946 to help former inmates of Nazi camps, 95% of whom were Jews."
I hope the '95% of whom were Jews' is something we're also imagining for the sake of increasing the obvious racial covariate. As I understand it, Jews only made up about half of those sent to concentration camps. (Now, they might represent more than 50% of the survivors - I can easily imagine disabled people having lower survival rates. But we also had groups like Romani that were sent to the camps, whose survival rate I wouldn't expect to be notably different).
This.
Assuming 95% arguendo... the other 5% included homosexuals and other undesirable persons that the imagined policy-makers would have likely wanted to exclude.
To my knowledge, there were laws that provided back pay and pension benefits to black soldiers to make up for earlier discrimination against those soldiers.
" I think Gans has pointed to federal laws by the Congress then that provided relief explicitly to blacks"
Source? What federal laws specifically provided relief to "blacks" as opposed to particular categories of persons who had suffered prior discrimination, such as freed slaves, or soldiers who had received inferior pay?
That is kind of the issue here. Once you've decided that you're going to treat racial groups as fungible collections of people, the details of contingent programs just blur away, and all you'll "see" anymore are the statistics. From which you'll deduce that the programs were based on the race, and not the contingent circumstances that actually drove them.
So the Freedmen's bureau mostly aided blacks, it must have been a program "to aid blacks", and never mind that it only aided blacks who'd been unfree or rendered refugees, and aided whites who similarly qualified.
Or the police arrest a lot of blacks relative to whites, the fact that they actually have a basis for each arrest becomes invisible, (The individual circumstances being considered irrelevant in the face of the statistics.) and they must be arresting them because they're blacks.
You see this pattern over and over. It's due to having decided to treat members of groups as fungible instances of the group, rather than individuals who are merely incidentally group members.
It is, I think, the fundamental conceptual basis of racism.
"And isn’t saying “well, they might have felt relief for the particular racial group of blacks in the particular situation in 1868 wasn’t a violation of equal protection"
But it wasn't "relief for the particular racial group of blacks". That's the root mistake here.
It was relief for people "in the particular situation" who happened to be mostly blacks. If you were in the particular situation, and not black, you got the relief. If you were black, but not in the particular situation, you didn't. It was conditioned on the situation, NOT the race.
In exactly the way AA today ISN'T conditioned on the situation, but instead IS conditioned on the race.