The Volokh Conspiracy
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On The Merchant of Venice
Why Shakespeare's play about an absurd contract dispute continues to fascinate lawyers
Pretty much every lawyer in the English-speaking world has heard of Shakespeare's The Merchant of Venice. Merchant is one of Shakespeare's "problem plays." For a comedy, it isn't very funny, and the ugly treatment of Shylock, the Jewish moneylender, by the play's Christians makes contemporary audiences cringe. What's more, the central plot device is absurd. Shylock's contract with Antonio, which requires the latter to forfeit "a pound of flesh" upon breach, would be void ab initio. The fact that everyone in the play acts as though the laws of Venice (or anywhere else) would honor such a contract is totally unbelievable. The climactic trial scene in Act IV, featuring Portia's famous argument and Shylock's famous downfall, makes for great theater. But, as a legal matter, it is simply preposterous.
Yet lawyers do well to heed Merchant, precisely because of what the play reveals about law's limits. In an essay posted at the Law & Liberty site, I explain why. For Shakespeare's contemporaries, Venice was the commercial republic, a city where people from various cultures could do business together and, it was hoped, learn to tolerate one another. The element that held it all together was a supposedly neutral law of contract. A neutral commercial law, it was thought, could displace deeper conflicts and lead to a peaceful community.
As Allen Bloom observed, Merchant suggests that this theory, which later writers would call the doux commerce thesis, cannot work in the context of deep social division:
Venice was less serene and indifferent to religion than portrayed. But, as a symbol, the city was important. And by drawing the conflict as starkly as he does, Shakespeare means to ask whether the Venetian system can work where intercommunal divisions concern bedrock beliefs and ways of life. His answer is not hopeful. The dispute between Antonio and Shylock over charging interest reflects a deeper conflict about ultimate values that commerce and commercial law cannot resolve. "The law of Venice can force" the two men "to a temporary truce," Bloom writes, "but in any crucial instance the conflict will re-emerge, and each will try to destroy the spirit of the law; for each has a different way of life which, if it were universalized within the city, would destroy that of the other. They have no common ground."
Where such common ground does not exist, the law cannot create it. Law, even a neutral law of contracts, inevitably requires judgment: Which agreements should be enforced, and which should not? And judgment inevitably depends on the values people bring to the law from the wider culture. Where people share values, law does a tolerably good job resolving their disputes. One party wins and the other loses, but both can accept the legitimacy of the system. Where moral divisions run deep and the stakes are high, this is not possible. Law alone cannot persuade people to accept decisions that violate their most basic sense of right and wrong.
At the close of the hearing, Shylock is led away to become a Christian. Antonio receives half of Shylock's goods to use in trust for Shylock's new son-in-law and daughter, and Shylock is forced to leave the rest of his estate to the couple on his death. Portia and Bassanio begin their married life, with Bassanio as the new lord of Portia's estate in Belmont. Commerce in Venice resumes, but outsiders have learned an important lesson. They can make money in the city, but they will never be part of a true community, which requires more than a shared commitment to buying and selling.
You can read the whole essay here.
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Dangerous subject, like Dicken's treatment of Fagin in _Oliver Twist._
Somebody do E. M. Forster's novel about a rape accusation.
Fagin was certainly an odd case. Apparently, he was based on a real figure of the London underworld who happened to be Jewish. Fagin's Jewishness was never a plot point, but he had to be <i<something, so why not a Jew, like the "real" Fagin?
But at least in the early installments, Dickens himself, in his authorial voice, calls him "the Jew."
This would be like Mario Puzo, in his own authorial voice, calling Vito Corleone "the Wop." Certainly the Irish cops would likely call him that, so having them refer to "the Wop" is just versimilitude, just as having certain characters in Oliver Twist call Fagin "the Jew" would be authentic, and not a reflection on Dickens himself.
Someone called Dickens out on this, he apologized, and authorial references to Fagin as "the Jew" seem to have decreased in later installments.
from George Orwell's essay on Charles Dickens:
He seldom even makes jokes turning on nationality. He does not exploit the comic Irishman and the comic Welshman, for instance, and not because he objects to stock characters and ready-made jokes, which obviously he does not. It is perhaps more significant that he shows no prejudice against Jews. It is true that he takes it for granted (Oliver Twist and Great Expectations) that a receiver of stolen goods will be a Jew, which at the time was probably justified. But the ‘Jew joke’, endemic in English literature until the rise of Hitler, does not appear in his books, and in Our Mutual Friend he makes a pious though not very convincing attempt to stand up for the Jews.
Lawyers and Shakespeare; how many way can an article be ignored?
To an, or not to an; that is a question.
John Mortimer can be found online offering a brief introduction - citing Shakespeare's pound of flesh - to the Rumpole of the Bailey episode "Rumpole and Portia" a name assigned by Rumpole to the presiding female advocate. Shakespeare may have exaggerated to explain the extremes of human nature however he made his point so vividly that his words remain with us today.
There was a time, when female lawyers were a lot more uncommon, that it was actually quite common to call them "Portias". E.g., Assist Attorney General Mabel Willebrandt, perhaps the most famous female lawyer of her time and whose jurisdiction included most of the bootlegging cases, was called "Prohibition Portia" by the media.
I really like the Rumpole stories. As I recall, he refers to her as "the Portia of our chambers, " more in jest than respect, but I may have misread.
I never met him myself, but I suspect Shakespeare wrote better than he knew. He may have thought he was simply doing a play to appeal to his gentile audience's prejudices, but like his plays in general, they're so well-written they raise plenty of issues beyond what Shakespeare may have consciously thought about. I think they call this "the death of the author" - why should the author have a monopoly of interpretation of his own work; who not let the reader think up some significance to the work?
And Hamlet - for all we know Shakespeare may have been working on deadline - "oh, Lord, I have to churn out another script - let's see, audiences today love revenge plays, so let me take that Hamlet story and rework it a bit, then I'll go get a drink. For that matter, why not start the drink now, while I'm writing?"
No doubt this comment is correct, Shakespeare did write better than he knew and we are fortunate to have his work. Disagreement over meanings is fatal to legal issue, but a great compliment to artistic writing.
The linked article is superb, thanks for making us aware of it.
Shakespeare did write for a mass audience, such as was available then. If he lived today he might write for TV, rather than work on serious stage plays.
Cal Cetín : "I suspect Shakespeare wrote better than he knew"
Yep. Almost certainly Shakespeare wrote Merchant for an audience that would laugh uproariously at Shylock's comeuppance (the whole subplot with the daughter was gratuitously cruel). But when it's automatic to give every character real depth and emotions sometimes simple messages aren't simple anymore.
You see the same thing with the Tempest. Caliban as a sympathetic and wronged character was probably the furthest thing from Will's mind, but it's there if you look. (That said, the brute shouldn't have made an attempt on Miranda's virtue)
I'm a big Winter's Tale fan myself - a play with no pretense of moral messaging from either from Shakespeare's time or ours...
A few thoughts
1. Portia argues for Christian mercy - a laughable effort. Think about Christian Europe at the time, and then get back to me.
2. She argues that Shylock can have his pound of flesh, but by law, cannon shed Christian blood. Well now - shedding Jewish blood is no problem, but a drop of Christian blood gets a Jew executed.
3. Shylock fulfilled his side of the bargain, but apparently was never expected to fulfil his. What kind of a deal is that? What if the money wasn't raised to pay off Shylock - could the bargain have been enforced then?
All I see is Christians gaming the system to their advantage - heads I win, tails you lose. At the heart of the play is the refusal of insiders to play by their own rules when it doesnt' suit them. Which sounds a lot like our own Supreme Court.
This, of course, aligns with why you need civil rights laws.
Capitalism will not end bigotry.
I don't think bolshevikism did either...human nature perhaps?
Uh, sick burn on the USSR, I guess?
As long as the government treats everyone equally, I'd leave the bigots alone. Let them hate to their hearts' content. I'd even let them discriminate as much as they like (as long as they're private actors).
We have history as well as Shakespeare to show us this ends up with a monstrous and unfree society.
"Shakespearean Whodunnits" is a collection of mystery short stories from 2000 edited by Mike Ashley. There's a wide variety of styles, and I found the story based on "The Merchant of Venice" to be excellent and moving. We recently moved and I haven't unpacked the book yet so I can't provide the story's title and author, but the collection is highly recommended.
"to forfeit "a pound of flesh" upon breach, would be void ab initio"
But I'm certain that VC discussants have often argued that contracts for organ donation should be permitted, and that a free market should be the libertarian goal. How is this any different?
There was one analysis that I read that made an interesting point.
Slavery was legal in Venice at the time. In fact, there are references that many of the merchants in city were slave traders.
In a city where the lives of people are bought and sold, why would it NOT be allowed to have a pound of your own flesh on the scales in an honest contract? In the ancient world, losing your freedom on default was a common setup, as the last step of bankruptcy was selling yourself. Is it really that different to sell a piece of yourself?
I always thought that it was a parallel to Shylock's situation. While being only slightly different than what is generally accepted, it is portrayed as shocking.
Also, The Merchant of Venice is about an "illegal agreement" -- which poses some facsinating legal and moral questions; see, e. g.: https://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=2779736