The Volokh Conspiracy
Mostly law professors | Sometimes contrarian | Often libertarian | Always independent
Is It Defamatory to Falsely Call Someone a Racist, White Supremacist, Socialist, or Communist?
No, because courts conclude that those terms are just opinions and name-calling.
A lot of derogatory, even unfairly derogatory, criticism is treated as pure opinion, and thus not legally actionable. For instance, claiming that someone's appearance in some video (especially one that you link to) reflects a "smirk" (rather than a pained smile) and stems from racism, is likely to be seen as an opinion: A reasonable reader would understand it as the poster's subjective judgment about the video subject's motivations, and thus as speculation rather than an assertion about provable fact. To quote a nice summary from a recent federal district court case,
Statements indicating that Plaintiff is racist are clearly expressions of opinion that cannot be proven as verifiably true or false. While there appears to be no North Carolina court expressly addressing this issue, many courts in other jurisdictions that have faced the issue of defamation claims based on accusations of bigotry or racism have held the statements to be nonactionable statements of opinion. See, e.g., Stevens v. Tillman (7th Cir. 1988) (holding that neither general statements charging a person with being racist, unfair, unjust, nor references to general discriminatory treatment, without more, constitute provably false assertions of fact); Standing Comm. on Discipline v. Yagman (9th Cir. 1995) (holding that calling a judge "anti-Semitic" was a non-actionable opinion); Ward v. Zelikovsky (N.J. 1994) (accusation that plaintiffs "hated Jews" nonactionable); Covino v. Hagemann (N.Y. Sup. Ct. 1995) (dismissing defamation claim based on statement that plaintiff was "racially insensitive," observing "an expression of opinion is not actionable as a defamation, no matter how offensive, vituperative, or unreasonable it may be" and "[a]ccusations of racism and prejudice" have routinely been found to constitute non-actionable expressions of opinion); Williams v. Kanemaru (Haw. Ct. App. 2013) (accusation of racism based on disclosed facts not actionable for defamation); Lennon v. Cuyahoga County Juvenile Court (Ohio Ct. App. 2006) ("appellant's being called a racist was a matter of one employee's opinion and thus is constitutionally protected speech, not subject to a defamation claim").
Likewise, it's not actionable to accuse another of expressing sympathy for Communism, defending Communism, or even being Communist in his ideology. See, e.g., McAndrew v. Scranton Republican Pub. Co. (Pa. 1950); Clark v. Allen (Pa. 1964):
It is a matter of widespread common knowledge that countless patriotic Americans sincerely and sharply disagree as to what actions and/or words and/or policies aid the Communist cause, or what show Communist tendencies, or what amounts to an "appeasement" of Communism, or what is a "pro-Communist," or exactly what is meant by the term "soft on Communism."
While these words and expressions have a different meaning or meanings for very many Americans and often are undoubtedly intended to be derogatory, they are not libelous…. To hold these words or any of said expressions libelous would realistically and practically put an effective stop to searching and illuminating discussion and debate with likely dire results.
And to quote the general rationale for this position, from Judge Frank Easterbrook writing in Stevens v. Tillman (7th Cir. 1983):
The word ["racism"] has been watered down by overuse, becoming common coin in political discourse. Tillman called Stevens a racist; Stevens issued a press release calling Tillman a "racist" and her supporters "bigots." Formerly a "racist" was a believer in the superiority of one's own race, often a supporter of slavery or segregation, or a fomenter of hatred among the races…. Politicians sometimes use the term much more loosely, as referring to anyone (not of the speaker's race) who opposes the speaker's political goals—on the "rationale" that the speaker espouses only what is good for the jurisdiction (or the audience), and since one's opponents have no cause to oppose what is beneficial, their opposition must be based on race….
The term has acquired intermediate meanings too. The speaker may use "she is a racist" to mean "she is condescending to me, which must be because of my race because there is no other reason to condescend"—a reaction that attaches racial connotations to what may be an inflated opinion of one's self — or to mean "she thinks all black mothers are on welfare, which is stereotypical." Meanings of this sort fit comfortably within the immunity for name-calling.
Language is subject to levelling forces. When a word acquires a strong meaning it becomes useful in rhetoric. A single word conveys a powerful image. When plantation owners held blacks in chattel slavery, when 100 years later governors declared "segregation now, segregation forever," everyone knew what a "racist" was. The strength of the image invites use.
To obtain emotional impact, orators employed the term without the strong justification, shading its meaning just a little. So long as any part of the old meaning lingers, there is a tendency to invoke the word for its impact rather than to convey a precise meaning. We may regret that the language is losing the meaning of a word, especially when there is no ready substitute. But we serve in a court of law rather than of language and cannot insist that speakers cling to older meanings.
In daily life "racist" is hurled about so indiscriminately that it is no more than a verbal slap in the face; the target can slap back (as Stevens did). It is not actionable unless it implies the existence of undisclosed, defamatory facts, and Stevens has not relied on any such implication.
Now falsely accusing someone of a specific act—e.g., of firing or prosecuting someone because of the target's race—may well be libelous. Thus, for instance, in MacElree v. Phila. Newspapers, Inc. (Pa. 1996), the court held that characterizing the plaintiff as having acted improperly by "abusing his power as the district attorney, an elected office, to further racism and his own political aspirations" could be actionable. But the court specifically stressed that the statement did more than "merely label[ the plaintiff] a racist"—the statement was actionable because it focused on what the plaintiff supposedly did rather than just on what he believed, and thus "amount[ed] to a charge of misconduct in office."
So saying "Kyle Rittenhouse is a white supremacist" or "Saule Omarova is a Communist" (or "Socialist") isn't libelous, because that is understood as an opinion. But falsely asserting that "Kyle Rittenhouse had joined the KKK" or "Saule Omarova is a member of the Communist Party USA" may be libelous (at least unless the context shows that this is hyperbole or a joke or some such).
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Wow, free speech is a lot more robust in the US than I thought, good to know.
I think less so than Volokh implies. For example, in the case of Yagman, the 9th Circuit held that the accusation of anti-Semitism was opinion specifically because it disclosed the facts that supported the conclusion. That is not true for a lot of the accusations against Rittenhouse -- or the factual allegations that went the conclusions were simply wrong.
An accusation of white supremacy, for example, would need equally direct underlying evidence. "He made an 'okay' sign, therefore he is a white supremacist" is stupid, but protected opinion. "He was with armed men, and is a white supremacist" suggests undisclosed defamatory facts -- there is neither a surface link between the two statements, nor a reasonably common belief that would lead to concluding the second half from the first.
I think your analysis is correct. But I have to ask, how would Rittenhouse even be able to prove the white supremacist assertions were false unless the defendant had explicitly made reference to facts underlying their assertion?
The burden of referencing facts is on the person making the defamatory statement. If they don't cite such facts, and they are not reasonably perceived as working from common public information, then the inference is that they know something to support the claim. The use of undisclosed defamatory facts is what makes the defamatory statement a tort.
Under a preponderance of evidence standard, a defamation plaintiff would have character witnesses say that they never knew the plaintiff to do anything consistent with (defamatory assertion). Then the defendant has the burden of overcoming that -- probably by citing the specific facts they disclosed or relied on. If they disclosed the facts, or those facts are well known, the judge probably finds for the defendant as a matter of law (before the character witnesses testify). Otherwise the fact finder decides.
Professor, looks like some nefarious government actor censored your last sentence mid-word. This is worrisome. You don't play tennis, do you? You may have escaped the Soviet bear, but maybe its cousin, Xi-the-Winnie-the-Pooh, has come for you.
Whoops, sorry, fixed!
Once again, being insulted causes no damage save hurt feeling. That has no value. The liability should be on those who act on the insult, such as employers, spouses, clubs, churches, and other membership organizations. Licensing boards acting on allegations should also be made to pay for investigations time and cost, and stress. Those are real damages. Utterances cause no damage.
Statements indicating that Plaintiff is racist are clearly expressions of opinion that cannot be proven as verifiably true or false.
This is an interesting view, but not one that stands up to serious examination. It is true that "racist" can cover a wide field from say Alfred Rosenberg to BLM activists to drunks in bars. So there is a question as to whether someone using the word is using it in a narrow Rosenberg-ish sense, or in a wide, nearest insult to hand sense. But surely that makes it a question of fact, for a jury to determine, as to whether the word is, in any particular case, being used in a narrow sense amenable to demonstration by appeal to factual evidence, or in a wibbly wobbly too many beers sense.
I'm sure that there would be many people, particularly on the left, but by no means exclusively, who would dispute the notion that "racist" is not even theoretically capable, in any case, of being amenable to proof by an appeal to evidence.
I note that both judges who seem to think that "racism" can never rise above mere opinion are Republican appointees. Do we have any precedent from left leaning judges that "racist" is not really a thing, but just an insult ?
It does not matter what the opinion of many on the left is.
To the public, both racist and communist have been so bent out of shape it's impossible for a speaker to derive specific facts from someone using those terms.
Sarcastr0,
..."both racist and communist have been so bent out of shape..."
You are 100% correct here. Both terms have come to mean little more than "you don't agree with me."
Courts should continue to be given opportunities to protect people from defamation nylon they get it right. And if courts are determined to continue to get it wrong, then state legislatures should adjust the rules to help courts out.
I don’t know how autocorrect changes "until" to "nylon".
If your fingers were displaced one key row ...
* un ---> yn
* t ---> y
* i ---> o
* l ---> l
maybe it thought ynyol was closest to nylon.
Dupont ought to hire autocorrect.
Converting until to nylon without chemistry.
Funny. I've been repeatedly assured in these pages that calling Clinton a felon was actionable defamation.
Funny, OP didn't say felon. I don't think it's the partisan football the terms in the OP are.
Though I, for one, never told you it was actionable the way you use it. I think it's wrong, but it's just another symptom of you mixing up your cocksure opinion with the well established truth. No reasonable person would mistake your posts for honest statements of fact.
Maybe by "actionable" they meant you might die in a weight lifting accident, or of random violence, or of a no-note, no-warning-signs suicide like so many other people inconvenient to the Clintons.
You think commenters are gonna kill Brett?
All these deaths of people inconvenient to the Clintons are pure coincidence, Sarcastr0. It's just a weird thing that happened over and over when Clintons stood to benefit.
You said you thought maybe Brett would be assassinated for his Internet comments. I hope you were joking, because that's some clinical paranoia.
The Clinton death list is textbook confirmation bias. The Clintons have vastly more associates than the average person, so a list of the subset of associates that have died is going to be larger than usual.
You're looking at the numerator and forgetting the denominator is also a thing that exists. Good for conspiracy theories, bad for interfacing with reality.
As to the Clintons benefiting, they have had a bunch of bad luck too. They do take risks I wouldn't, and their reversals of fortune happen in the public eye, so this is not surprising either.
Just get with QAnon already if you've got that much tin foil on.
I've had somebody try to get me fired for my internet comments. (HR came by to inform me, and we had a laugh over it.) I don't think we're far enough along for somebody to try to kill me over them... yet. I wouldn't rule out getting there eventually; "It can't happen here!" is stupid, and you don't have to be paranoid to realize that.
Every country lives over an abyss, Sarcastro. And we don't keep out of it by pretending it isn't there.
I don't rule much out with eventually attached.
I also don't post about such a wide swath of long from now possibilities.
But mostly I wouldn't defend anyone bringing up the Clinton death list, Brett.
I mean, it didn't happen over and over. This is the kind of thing that people like Kirkland who want to mock Republicans pretend that Republicans believe. And yet, Ben proudly admits he's gullible/mentally ill.
Clinton's Articles of Impeachment helpfully outlined seven obstruction of justice felonies: lying under oath, persuading Monica to lie under oath, and rewarding Monica for lying under oath with a job that she ultimately did not take.
Many people have referred to Rittenhouse as a “murderer”. Since he has been found not guilty, is that actionable?
Oops. Didn’t see the other thread.
"Murder" is often used to describe killings that violate moral principles. For example, capital punishment has been called murder.
All Democrats are murderers, according to The Religious White®, for the crime (sin?) of declaring respect for women's right to choose to have an abortion previability is moral.
By the power vested in them by themselves, Democrats are henceforth banned from self-identifying as Christians.*
*Per precedent set in previous declaration that Secretary Pete Buttigieg is not a Christian.
from my understanding, its a big maybe but depends on the context. if you are saying as a matter of fact he was found guilty of murder, I think the answer is obvious. But it would be protected speech if its your interpretation of his actions. It is within your right to disagree with the jury's findings - they do not establish facts for all times.
Indeed, I and many others have called O J Simpson a murderer, and do so to this day.
ACK! I should have taken Darth's hint and scrolled down to the very next post.
I'd say leave cases like this to the much maligned jury - they can figure out how the average person would interpret an accusation, given the circumstances of the particular accusation.
Many years ago, I looked at NY defamation cases involving accusations that someone was a communist. I'm going on memory, but as I recall, when the Soviet Union was our gallant ally in the fight against Hitler, it was held not to be defamatory as a matter of law, Then, early in the Cold War, it was held to be defamatory as a matter of law. I remember thinking that rather than have judges put their damp fingers in the wind and decide the question as a matter of law it ought to be a question for the jury.
Then again, I'm at an age when memory should not be admissible as evidence of anything.
I looked and found an article about calling someone a communist.
Michigan Law Review Vol. 55, No. 1 (Nov., 1956), pp. 146-148
It seems that in 1956 the issue was whether it's automatically slander (without having to prove special damages) to call someone a Communist.
Sounds like a loathsome disease to me!
Morally, it is.
I was going to say "Yes it is, obviously, don't be stupid" but then I realised that at skim speed I had read "communist" as "columnist."
This is all well and good when it comes to the courts but at various times in US history, people used these labels or believed others adhered to these beliefs. The result is they have suffered at the hands of government, socially and financially. What recourse does the blacklisted Hollywood writer have when they lose their position thanks to some accusation by fellow Hollywood-ites of some alleged communist beliefs?
Yes, the analysis would no doubt have been different in the 1950s.
I think the Courts need to revisit this. The way that the Mainstream Media and Social Media are using these terms and the results for the people that they are being used against are, it isn't an "opinion" or "name calling" anymore. When the Mother of a Police Officer stands up for her son when he is involved in a shooting causes her to lose her job, it is more than name calling or an opinion. When a man leaves for the night at the request of the Police because of a non-violent argument with his Wife and then looses his job because some moron with a scanner splashes it all over Facebook labeling him as a wife beater, it isn't name calling or an opinion. When a man (me) is labeled a "pedophile", by the same moron with a scanner, for taking his Niece and two of her friends for ice cream. (Neighbor saw me putting them into the car and called the Police) Well you see where I'm going.
Oof. I haven't had that experience, but now I have that to worry about, so thanks. Some mom at the park did call police on me for taking pictures of my kids.
I had a nice professional Cannon 200mm zoom lens that makes for great candid portraits (and apparently is what every paranoid mom thinks a pedo is going to use to abduct her kids).
So yeah, I could have walked that path too. Cop was nice and rolled his eyes as he asked what I was up to in that universal "I gotta ask, it is just my job" way. if he had taken statements and written a report instead???
Sheesh.
"Wife beater" is an allegation of fact, not opinion.
One of the great achievements of American society during my lifetime is that our bigots no longer wish to be known as bigots, at least not in public.
A half-century or so ago, the bigotry was open, common, even casual. The racists, misogynists, anti-Semites, gay-bashers, Asian-haters, and the like (still some hatred toward Italians, the Irish, and Catholics at that time) wanted everyone to know how they saw things, and that their way would be the way.
I watched a neighbor tell a Black classmate (third grade or so) to 'find another way home' from school because he didn't want her on 'his' sidewalk -- and she did. Women were dragged into homes by the sleeve, arm, or hair for beatings that everyone heard but no one did anything about. Children were more likely to be beaten in the street or on a porch, with everyone watching. Gays were taunted mercilessly, driven underground, beaten in alleys -- and that was by the police. Rarely was a Jew given the respect of being called a Jew -- and even then it was regularly followed immediately by bastard or preceded by hook-nosed.
Today's vestigial bigots, however, no longer want to be known as bigots. They prefer to hide behind euphemisms such as "traditional values," "conservative values," "religious values," "colorblind," and "heartland." They guard their genuine opinions, revealing them solely in they perceive to be safe spaces -- private homes, online message boards, Republican committee meetings, NASCAR tailgates, and the comment sections of White, male, right-wing blogs.
Our nation has experienced successive waves of brutal intolerance related to religion, skin color, ethnicity, immigration, or perceived economic pressures. Italians, Jews, Blacks, Asians, gays, the Irish, Hispanics, Muslims, women, Catholics, eastern Europeans, other Asians, agnostics, other Hispanics -- at one time or another, most of America was targeted by our lesser elements.
What makes America great is that in America the bigots don't win, not over time. The influence and acceptance of bigotry in America continues to decline, especially in our educated, successful, modern communities and in our public affairs. Most Americans welcome immigrants, immigration, and the diminution of unearned privilege for certain citizens.
Others may wallow in political correctness, but I have lost my taste for it. I call a bigot a bigot. I call those who appease bigots lousy people. Increasingly, this is the American way.
"I watched a neighbor tell a Black classmate (third grade or so) to 'find another way home' from school because he didn't want her on 'his' sidewalk -- and she did."
...but today, black schoolgirls are safer than ever in their neighborhoods!
But you've persuaded me that being a racist or white supremacist is a very bad thing, so bad that I presume you agree that falsely calling someone racist or white supremacist would be libelous.
Please, tell us more about the cranky old conservative's perspective on American progress in general (and progress at the expense of bigotry in particular) . . . don't forget to describe the "good old days" . . .
Why should I tell you, when the conservatives in your head are already so eloquent on the subject?
My mother-in-law called my "that f***ing white boy" for a decade... And she loved me dearly. I can speak from personal experience as to public expressions of bigotry and racial animus and how it has changed over the years.
Your side is far from being "the good guys". We travelled all through Klan country back in the 80's and never once had anyone so much as look at us crosseyed... Not even after midnight at country bars in Cumming and Kinnesaw Georgia. But I heard plenty in what was then called liberal stronholds.
You should read Matt Welch's article about the courses in racism his kids are being forced to take.
Not alk bigots and racists are embarrassed these days. some win Pulitzer Prizes...
"But the court specifically stressed that the statement did more than "merely label[ the plaintiff] a racist"—the statement was actionable because it focused on what the plaintiff supposedly did rather than just on what he believed, and thus "amount[ed] to a charge of misconduct in office.""
This seems a reasonable enough principle, but what if "what he believed" was considered to be sufficient cause for adverse employment or interference of a business contract? You don't get fired because someone called you a name, but you can still be fired for unproven allegations such as this.
I'm not sure if this is defamation or not, but it's certainly a step up from someone calling you an "idiot."
Kyle will be a rich man. So whatever.
Prosecutors sought, and got, a modification of Rittenhouse's bond prohibiting him from associating with white supremacists. Something tells me that the judge would have figured out how to enforce the condition without saying that it was just a matter of opinion.
That's not a convincing argument for anything. The Rittenhouse judge is not the sharpest knife in the drawer. Consider how confusing he found the "dangerous weapon" law, never mind that it contained an explicit exemption for long guns.
Exactly who does he think is "white supremacist", and why would someone like that be a legally unsuitable associate for Rittenhouse? (Who, in his interview with Tucker Carlson after the verdict declared himself a Black Lives Matter supporter, LOL!)