The Volokh Conspiracy
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Pennsylvania Supreme Court Reverses Bill Cosby Conviction
"When an unconditional charging decision is made publicly and with the intent to induce action and reliance by the defendant, and when the defendant does so to his detriment ..., denying the defendant the benefit of that decision is an affront to fundamental fairness."
From the majority:
In 2005, Montgomery County District Attorney Bruce Castor learned that Andrea Constand had reported that William Cosby had sexually assaulted her in 2004 at his Cheltenham residence. Along with his top deputy prosecutor and experienced detectives, District Attorney Castor thoroughly investigated Constand's claim. In evaluating the likelihood of a successful prosecution of Cosby, the district attorney foresaw difficulties with Constand's credibility as a witness based, in part, upon her decision not to file a complaint promptly.
D.A. Castor further determined that a prosecution would be frustrated because there was no corroborating forensic evidence and because testimony from other potential claimants against Cosby likely was inadmissible under governing laws of evidence. The collective weight of these considerations led D.A. Castor to conclude that, unless Cosby confessed, "there was insufficient credible and admissible evidence upon which any charge against Mr. Cosby related to the Constand incident could be proven beyond a reasonable doubt."
Seeking "some measure of justice" for Constand, D.A. Castor decided that the Commonwealth would decline to prosecute Cosby for the incident involving Constand, thereby allowing Cosby to be forced to testify in a subsequent civil action, under penalty of perjury, without the benefit of his Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination. Unable to invoke any right not to testify in the civil proceedings, Cosby relied upon the district attorney's declination and proceeded to provide four sworn depositions. During those depositions, Cosby made several incriminating statements.
D.A. Castor's successors did not feel bound by his decision, and decided to prosecute Cosby notwithstanding that prior undertaking. The fruits of Cosby's reliance upon D.A. Castor's decision—Cosby's sworn inculpatory testimony—were then used by D.A. Castor's successors against Cosby at Cosby's criminal trial. We granted allowance of appeal to determine whether D.A. Castor's decision not to prosecute Cosby in exchange for his testimony must be enforced against the Commonwealth ….
When an unconditional charging decision is made publicly and with the intent to induce action and reliance by the defendant, and when the defendant does so to his detriment (and in some instances upon the advice of counsel), denying the defendant the benefit of that decision is an affront to fundamental fairness, particularly when it results in a criminal prosecution that was foregone for more than a decade. No mere changing of the guard strips that circumstance of its inequity. A contrary result would be patently untenable. It would violate long-cherished principles of fundamental fairness. It would be antithetical to, and corrosive of, the integrity and functionality of the criminal justice system that we strive to maintain.
For these reasons, Cosby's convictions and judgment of sentence are vacated, and he is discharged.
There is also a partial concurrence/partial dissent, and a dissent.
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The way I read it, Cosby was never actually compelled to testify, and there was no written non-prosecution agreement. The only document representing such an agreement was a press release saying there wasn't enough evidence to bring charges.
I think there was absolute legal malpractice by Cosby's attorneys, but I don't think he should be freed based on a verbal agreement by the DA when he wasn't even compelled to testify. Cosby had an understanding--IMO, a misunderstanding based on a promise the DA couldn't give--that he could be compelled to testify. I don't think he should benefit from receiving terrible legal advice by scoring an *acquittal* on appeal.
From the OP:
In other words the DA decided they didn't have enough evidence to successfully prosecute Cosby criminally but agreed not to prosecute Cosby so he could be forced in a civil case to testify (otherwise Cosby could and presumably would have invoked the Fifth Amendment). Then later the new DA decided not to honor their predecessor’s agreement not to prosecute Cosby (without which he wouldn’t have been forced to testify in a civil case) and use statements Cosby made in the civil case against him.
The judgement overturning Cosby's conviction makes it clear that there was no agreement. It is simply that both the (old) DA and Cosby's lawyers in the civil case assumed that the DA's press release precluded any future criminal prosecution. The new DA and the criminal trial court disagreed.
IANAL but I would be rather reluctant to rely on a mere understanding with a DA. I'd want it nailed on, in writing, in blood. Preferably the DA's.
" I would be rather reluctant to rely on a mere understanding with a DA. I’d want it nailed on, in writing, in blood."
Pursuant to post-AIDS "body fluids" protocols, a document written in blood would be defined as a biohazard and I'm not sure how you could introduce it into court.
On a more realistic plain, we live in a world where something like 90% of criminal charges are resolved with plea bargains, not to mention all of the major cases which are bases on the promises of defendants to testify against other defendants. Can you imagine the logistical nightmare of having each and every offer having to be reduced to writing -- and then somehow documented as legitimate?
The whole system would choke.
not to mention all of the major cases which are bases on the promises of defendants to testify against other defendants.
I seem to recall that there was a big kerfuffle related to General Flynn, wherein the prosecutors complained that Flynn had reneged on a promise to give certain evidence against somebody else, while Flynn said he hadn't promised to give that evidence, he'd promised to give some other evidence.
Seems to me that writing it down, if it's important, is not a bad idea.
Your recollection is mistaken, and as with any other federal case the Flynn plea agreement was reduced to writing (and also reviewed on the record in court, as required by Fed. R. Crim. P. 11). You can review it here, if you like:
https://www.lawfareblog.com/michael-flynn-plea-agreement-documents
I don't think it is mistaken - you may have misunderstood my point.
In the Flynn case it was written down, and the later disagreement had to do with what the writing meant.
In the current case, the DA's conclusion was written down, the later disagreement had to do with its legal import.
So when I say it should be written down, I mean if it's important, and you don't plan to write it down, you should think again. And when you do write it down, you should write it down as clearly as you can.
you may have misunderstood my point
I forgot to add that this was probably because I worded my point poorly.
The dispute was Flynn's attorneys said he would testify that he knowingly failed to register as a foreign agent. Flynn said he would testify that he failed to register, but not knowingly. And it was a conflict of interest for his attorneys because they are the ones who told him he didn't have to register. So they were advising him for their own interest not his.
You really are a posterchild for the Dunning-Kruger effect.
Hey! Revealing his medical conditions like that violates HIPPA!
"not to mention all of the major cases which are bases on the promises of defendants to testify against other defendants."
I am not sure where you get the idea that this happens often, or even often enough to be worth commenting about, but it doesn't.
"On a more realistic plain, we live in a world where something like 90% of criminal charges are resolved with plea bargains, not to mention all of the major cases which are bases on the promises of defendants to testify against other defendants. Can you imagine the logistical nightmare of having each and every offer having to be reduced to writing — and then somehow documented as legitimate?" But that IS exactly how itis done. All plea bargains, at least for indictable offenses, are reduced to writing. Not only that, before any case is resolved by way of a plea agreement, there must be a hearing at which the court and the parties go over the written agreement to make sure, in open court, that there has been a meeting of the minds and the defendant understands all material aspects of the agreement.
Which reminds me, as a non lawyer, but as a user of lawyers ....whenever you get to a really important bit in a contract - eg that the plot of land you are selling is Alexandra Farm in rural Virginia worth $5m, not Alexandra Farm the massive condo complex in downtown Houston worth $280m, and you say :
"can you put that in explicitly"
the b*gg*rs always say :
"no, no, no it's not ambiguous at all, it follows from the principle of silencio meanio magico and the reference to the "property of the fourth part" in Clause 217.4."
and you come back with :
"no doubt, but humor me"
they protest and get all hurt and defensive.
Just write the damn thing down, in black and white !
Lee,
I'm delighted to read your comment.
I've had the same conversation with lawyers often.
Me: Why don't we just say the deal doesn't include X?
Lawyer: No need. It's clearly implied by Section 3, paragraph a, subparagraph a(2)iii and the definition of "doodad."
I've even had the nerve to suggest that when a contract describes a calculation in what I consider to be an ambiguous fashion it would be helpful to express it mathematically, and include an example.
That gets eyerolls also.
Yeah, I have a vague recollection that we have had a meeting of minds previously on the question of whether lawyers go into the law from a love of the law, or in desperate attempt to flee from mathematics.
(The fiendishly mathematical EV excepted, obviously.)
I sympathize, but remember (1) you cannot anticpate every issue that might come up and (2) the more you put in, the more complex, and more possibility for misconstruing (or flat out contradiction) you have.
That was one of the prime arguments against the Bill of Rights, that it was already there, and if you put specific rights in writing, the non-enumerated rights would vanish.
The second class status of unenumerated rates has come to pass; see freedom of association for a good example. But it would have been worse without the Bill of Rights. Even with it, the right to keep and bear arms is less honored than the unenumerated right to an abortion, and the 9th and 10th amendments are treated like an inside joke.
The Bill of Rights was far more important a legal document than an ordinary commercial contract, with far more effect. Most contracts will never be litigated. You have to balance covering all the bases with the desire of the parties to do a contract that is cost efficient and is enough to do the job, but not more.
True, but if "It's already covered," then how can it hurt to clarify, and if it's not already covered, or maybe covered, except for Shmendrick v. Pippick (1924), then maybe clarifying is a good idea.
Here's how it may hurt. Including specific examples may narrow general clauses.
The concurrence/partial dissent agreed that Cosby was entitled to rely on the DA's assurances, but took the majority to task for leaving it unclear whether the procedure should be countenanced in future cases and would have held that, going forward, this is not how it's done and no one should rely on such procedures in the future.
"would have held that, going forward, this is not how it’s done and no one should rely on such procedures in the future."
They would have held that DA's can promise not to prosecute someone in order to get them to make incriminating statements, and then renege? That sucks.
Well, once they're on notice that the promise is worthless, sure. Presumably every competent counsel would tell a defendant, going forward, "You know he can break his word on that, so I wouldn't advise any reliance on the promise."
The solution is easy: Get it in writing or treat it as the bullshit it probably is.
" Presumably every competent counsel would tell a defendant, going forward, “You know he can break his word on that, so I wouldn’t advise any reliance on the promise.”"
Sure, but the guys with incompetent counsel or no counsel get screwed. If DA has the apparent authority to make an agreement, and makes it, he should be bound by it.
No, I agree. If government officials aren't expected to know every bit of the law, why should private litigants?
Cosby was never actually compelled to testify, and there was no written non-prosecution agreement.
Yet according the the Court he was “forced to testify in a subsequent civil action, under penalty of perjury, without the benefit of his Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination.”
Elsewhere, the opinion says: "From the perspective of Cosby’s attorneys, the district attorney’s decision legally deprived Cosby of any right or ability to invoke the Fifth Amendment. Accordingly, not once during the four depositions did Cosby invoke the Fifth Amendment or even mention it."
It's not like he pleaded the Fifth and was compelled to testify by a judge. When I say he wasn't compelled, I mean he wasn't legally ordered to testify. He relied on bad legal advice and thought he was compelled based on a verbal agreement with the DA. I'm not sure the court's language that you quote is a fair depiction of what actually happened in civil proceeding.
If he sincerely - and reasonably - believed that he *wasn't* protected by the Fifth Amendment, and yet he invoked it anyway, couldn't that be cited as a bad-faith use of the Fifth Amendment?
The issue would be debatable, and he would be entitled to get a ruling from a judge. That frankly would be what I would do, because once a judge rules you lack Fifth Amendment rights because there is no danger of prosecution, there is no way a later court is going to go back on that.
Like I say below, if someone is ordered to testify, and that person reasonably and in good faith believes the 5th Amendment is *inapplicable,* then the testimony he gives is "compelled" IMHO.
Though of course, getting that on the record would be the wise thing to do. But if the conscientious witness omits to do this, then in the situation I described, isn't it still compelled testimony?
He relied on bad legal advice and thought he was compelled based on a verbal agreement with the DA.
Right, the court says in a couple of places that Cosby no longer had a right to invoke his right to remain silent but then decides the case by saying that Cosby had a right to rely on the prosecutor’s promise not to prosecute. How could lawyers as expensive as the ones that Cosby could afford make such an error? As the concurrence said, district attorneys don’t have the right to bind their successors without any judicial oversight. Maybe his lawyers thought that by treating the press release as formally valid they would get more protection for him than they would have been able to get for him from a formal agreement agreed to by the judge, though that sure didn’t work out very well when the next prosecutor took office.
Yet according the the Court he was “forced to testify in a subsequent civil action, under penalty of perjury, without the benefit of his Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination.”
I don't think so, I think that was the Court's report of the old DA's reasoning, not the Court's own analysis.
There was much more than just a statement that the DA lacked evidence to prosecute at that time. The DA told Cosby's lawyer that he would NEVER be prosecuted in order to remove Cosby's 5th amendment defense in the civil case.
The DA who issued the statement testified that:
" Mr. Cosby was not getting prosecuted at all ever as far as I was concerned. And my belief was that, as the Commonwealth and the representative of the sovereign, that I had the power to make such a statement and that, by doing so, as a matter of law Mr. Cosby would be unable to assert the Fifth Amendment in a civil deposition."
And Dr. Cosby's lawyers would have then advised him that he wasn't eligible to take the 5th.
What's being missed here is that what a rape victim most wants is a public admission by the perp that he did, in fact, rape her.
More than a criminal conviction or a prison sentence or even the cash payout from a civil suit, what the victim most wants is to have the perp to publicly admit that he wronged her. Particularly when she essentially is a nobody and he is a world-famous figure.
I would not be surprised if the DA knew this -- and knew both that the victim wouldn't get justice in a criminal trial -- but would in a civil trial if Cosby couldn't take the 5th.
I suppose it's dimly possible that there might be someone in the world less qualified than you to pronounce on what a rape victim "most wants" (Bill Cosby, for instance), but it's got to be a pretty short list.
I suppose it's also also dimly possible that different rape victims "most want" different things.
I actually said something quite similar at the training and was called on it.
The official mantra is that what a victim most wants is to be believed and to have her story publicly affirmed. Such is what we are supposed to thing -- although I think a lot of it is about the $$$$...
The problem is that, whether or not Mr. Castor believed it, a district attorney in Pennsylvania does not, in fact, have the power as the representative of the sovereign to unilaterally grant transactional immunity by issuing a press release. Rather, the district attorney was supposed to seek an order granting use-and-derivative-use immunity from a court once it appeared that Cosby was going to assert a privilege against testifying.
The state supreme court apprarently disagrees.
The state supreme court apprarently disagrees.
No, the the majority opinion agreed that there was no binding immunity agreement. Referring to the trial court it said:
It decided the case on Cosby’s right to rely on it nevertheless.
What is your authority that immunity must be granted by a court? In my experience, prosecutors have that authority. The same as they have the authority to grant a plea bargain. That's the whole point of a DA or a US attorney -- they represent the sovereign.
Suppose the DA instead said, our evidence is weak, let's do a deal that you plead to some lesser charge (unwanted touching, or whatver they call it in PA) and you serve a few months. The defendant then allocutes and pleads guilty. Can the DA say, never mind, we are going to prosecute you on rape anyway, and use your statements in the allocution against you?
Conversely, where would "ineffectiveness of counsel" go?
If a licensed lawyer wrongly advised Cosby as to his 5th Amendment rights, could his subsequent confession be excluded on *that* basis?
Could that also possibly be a place where the Court didn't want to go?
What is your authority that immunity must be granted by a court?
I think it was agreed by all opinions that there was no valid non-prosecution agreement. The “concurring and dissenting” opinion said:
By Rule 11 in federal courts plea agreements are negotiated by the prosecutor but they have effect only if the court accepts. Pennsylvania appears to have a similar rule.
A plea agreement is a very different thing from a grant of immunity from prosecution. A rule that the former must be approved by the court doesn't encompass the latter.
I am not the one who drew the comparison.
The Pennsylvania immunity statute, which is cited in the opinion.
U.S. Attorneys also don't have the power to unilaterally grant immunity. (Indeed, under the federal immunity statute, they don't even have the power to seek a grant of immunity from a court without approval from senior DOJ officials.)
I'm not disputing that there are other things the DA could have done that would have precluded this prosecution (although as noted below, a plea agreement in Pennsylvania does require court approval, and depending on Pennsylvania's double jeopardy doctrine might not necessarily bar higher charges). But that doesn't change the fact that issuing a press release doesn't appear to be enough.
I mean, double jeopardy says no.
I think you read it incorrectly.
"The way I read it, Cosby was never actually compelled to testify"
That is incorrect. When a witness receives a subpoena in a civil case, or a notice of deposition if he is a party (I suspect the latter here), he is obligated to appear and testify. If he is going to invoke any privilege, it is his burden to both claim and prove it.
In this case, the DA and Cosby's lawyers had a conversation in which both sides agreed that the DA's actions removed Cosby's Fifth Amendment rights. So he had no privilege to assert.
While I agree the smarter path would have been to either get it in writing or get a ruling from a judge, there is enough here for Cosby and his lawyers to reasonably believe that his statements would not be used against him in a criminal proceeding, as the DA had determined not to prosecute him.
There is no statute of fraud on such agreements. It may be foolish to rely on an oral representation by a DA, but if the DA honestly admits the oral representation, the court must take it into consideration.
For those who think this goes the other way, what is to prevent an unscrupulous DA from making promises, getting the target to testify believing he has immunity, and then using his statements against him?
This still sounds like incompetent lawyering on his lawyers' part. They got together and agreed amongst themselves that he lacked the right? Did they ever consider maybe asking a judge?
Consider if a subpoena to an attorney seeks information arguably protected by the attorney-client privilege. Does the attorney get together with the other side and just agree that a-c privilege doesn't apply? I hope not. No, he brings it before a judge, and gets the judge to rule that the privilege isn't applicable, and to issue an order to him to reveal the information. That way he both protects his own client and CYAs himself.
I agree with you that such would be the better course. But the question is, if that was not followed, was it correct for the judge in the criminal trial to have permitted that testimony to be admitted.
Note that below it says that the judge in the civil case ruled that he has no privilege. In my mind, that is game, set, and match. The judge is a member of the judiciary, which is a branch of the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania. The Commonwealth compelled him to testify over his asserted privilege. Perhaps the judge's ruling was erroneous, but using that testimony against him violated his rights. End of story.
Getting the decision in writing would have been terrific, but I don't see how Cosby's attorneys had any power at all to get the DA to sign a non-prosecution agreement. Hence, they did not commit malpractice. Also, the opinion explains that in the civil case, the trial judge ruled that Cosby had to submit to depositions because the DA's announcement meant he no longer had a Fifth Amendment privilege not to be deposed.
Then how did Jeffery Epstein get one?
Cosby's lawyer in the civil suit assumed he had no privilege. The judge was never asked to decide. See page 13 of the majority opinion.
They didn't have the power to force the DA to do anything, of course. But they did have the power to advise Cosby to assert his privilege against self-incrimination when his deposition was noticed—at which point the DA would have needed to choose between actually granting him immunity, or accepting that he wouldn't testify.
Where do you see that? As I read it, the judge in the civil suit never offered an opinion, because Cosby's attorneys never asked him to:
I thought I read that the judge in the civil case ruled he didn't have the privilege. Maybe I'm wrong. Honestly, the opinion's too long for me to go back and recheck it.
Aha!: Just saw the comment of NJ Prof, which is below, quoting the opinion as follows: “Cosby was forced to sit for four depositions. That he did not—and could not— choose to remain silent is apparent from the record. When Cosby attempted to decline to answer certain questions about Constand, Constand’s attorneys obtained a ruling from the civil trial judge forcing Cosby to answer.”
DA Castor all along opposed allowing the civil case depositions into evidence, saying there was an agreement. That is crucial.
I wonder if this is what they meant by a "Kodak Moment."
You could say the court effectively did a No Bill of his prosecution.
Or they might have said, this conviction is as solid as a bowl of Jello.
_Silvia v. UNH_...
I find the dissent more convincing than the majority opinion. The majority sounds like it's pulling stuff from its rear end again.
If Cosby had refused to testify in the civil trial, pleading the 5th, and the judge in the civil trial had ruled he wasn't entitled to, because there was no longer any threat of prosecution, then that would certainly make for a fun case in a subsequent criminal trial.
No it wouldn't. No judge could possible allow that testimony in a criminal trial, and if he did, the appellate court would have to overturn it.
See what hapens when you get a Democratic supreme court majority.
Competence?
Objection. Assumes facts not in evidence.
"We granted allowance of appeal to determine whether D.A. Castor's decision not to prosecute Cosby in exchange for his testimony must be enforced against the Commonwealth must be enforced against the Commonwealth…. [emphasis added]
Is this a typo, or am I missing something here?
How could you miss it, it's there twice!
IANAA and was wondering if this *wasn't* redundant.
It is a typo, but only in Prof. V.'s copy-paste. The underlying opinion PDF is fine and doesn't have the error.
I see this a lot on VC—not just with Prof. V. either—where the copy-paste somehow introduces a typo that wasn't in the original document. Which is weird, because why should that happen just from a simple copy-paste.
I have found that copy/paste from a .pdf often does funky things depending on which version of Adobe *you* have, and which version was made with, along with which features the later may have had (even if the user didn't know that).
There are multiple types of .pdf files....
I've seen that, too. Not sure the cause, maybe the cut and paste is capturing recorded editing changes.
That's just speculation, but I've had things like that happen to me.
After all Cosby has been through the past 25 (?) years, how could he have trusted the word of a DA ???
And what the hell were his lawyers thinking.
“Man who should be serving ten years is released after wrongly serving two.”
"BLACK MAN wrongly serving......"
Funny how media headlines are leaving that out.....
Particularly if you read his dissertation -- it was all about being BLACK....
My guess is that the number of people nationwide who don't already know that Bill Cosby is black is in the triple digits.
And that is because of WHITE SUPREMACY!
My guess is that the number of people nationwide who don’t already know that Bill Cosby is black is in the triple digits.
Under or over age 40?
Since he became outspoken about working hard and getting an education his status as a Black man has been revoked.
No, I think it was all the raping.
Weird the guys who claim all the want is a color blind society are the ones that can't help but bring up Cosby's irrelevant race.
I think you have the sequence backwards. First he was ostracized then the women came forward.
Yet more proof that the process is the punishment.
"Progressive" logic: criminal justice is a human wasteland prison-industrial complex. Throwing someone away for long periods of time does nothing to rehabilitate them. We need to provide counseling and education. EXCEPT if they raped a woman, then you throw them in jail forever without due process.
This decision sounds right. The Fifth Amendment isn't a game of Simon Says - if the government leads you to a reasonable, good-faith decision that the Fifth is inapplicable, and in consequence you give damaging testimony about yourself, do we really want the government to turn around and say "ha ha, you didn't say Simon Says, we'll use your statements to put you in prison!"
That wouldn't exactly give an incentive to witnesses to provide full testimony.
In fact, testimony under the circumstances I've described shouldn't be considered voluntary, since the witness is under an order to testify. And with a reasonable, good-faith belief that the Fifth is inapplicable, the witness ought to be bound in conscience *not* to invoke the Fifth, but to testify as ordered.
What's voluntary about that?
Caveat - a witness could contrariwise have a reasonable, good-faith belief that the Fifth Amendment *does* apply, and that's the position a more clever witness ought to take. Which doesn't mean penalize witnesses who place good-faith, reasonable reliance on the belief that the Fifth *doesn't* apply.
Not sure I follow all your mental gymnastics. But keep in mind one thing. Unlike a criminal proceeding, in a civil proceeding, if you invoke the FIfth Amendment, the fact finder may draw a negative inference against you. And often that can be the kiss of death for a civil defendant.
"mental gymnastics"
No gymnastics, just a constitutional ban on being compelled in a criminal prosecution to be a witness against oneself. This was written for the benefit of regular people, not Simon-Says, game-playing lawyers.
They can draw all the inferences they want in a civil proceeding so long as they're not compelling them to make statements usable against them in a criminal proceeding.
if the government leads you to a reasonable, good-faith decision that the Fifth is inapplicable, and in consequence you give damaging testimony about yourself, do we really want the government to turn around and say “ha ha, you didn’t say Simon Says, we’ll use your statements to put you in prison!”
You mean like, “Hey, tells us everything you did and I’ll make sure that it all works out OK for you”?
There’s a point at which protection against prosecution is legally established and short of that there is no protection.
'You mean like, “Hey, tells us everything you did and I’ll make sure that it all works out OK for you”?'
Explain how that would be a reasonable, good-faith decision, which is what I posited.
As someone who actually met Bill Cosby in person before all of this came out -- Cosby is a UM Alum -- I'd like to make three points.
First, the Bill Cosby on TV or stage is *not* the same man -- not that I've met a lot of famous people but I've never met someone who is so different in person from what he seemed to be. It isn't just that I was disappointed but that he "creeped me out" -- he tripped the "predator" warnings that I'd relied on decades ago when I'd been in the Boy Scouts.
I can't be the only person who picked this up from him -- I find it really hard that he could have raped as many women as he allegedly did without anyone knowing -- without (a) any of the victims saying anything (to someone), (b) bystanders noticing something that "didn't look right", or even (c) those who knew the victims not noticing the post-rape trauma in the victim.
And hence I suspect it was more a case of Omerta -- people knew, but didn't say anything -- which leads to my second point:
2: No one cared until he became a Conservative. Cosby published Come On, People Here's a 4-minute clip that both reflects what Cosby was saying at the time, and is worth watching: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=itWCvkK44lE
YES, I agreed with what Cosby was saying -- but that's a different issue and he could be debated on the merits of his argument. What I find repugnant is what I consider to have been a selective prosecution to "get" (and silence) someone who is saying something that isn't popular.
Third, I have a real issue with the other five alleged victims testifying at his trial. He wasn't charged with having raped *them* and we have statutes of limitations (which had expired) for a reason.
No, you didn't.
No, he didn't.
Yes, I did.
YOU lie....
Even if you were telling the truth (which you're obviously not), you still somehow managed to find he single worst possible take.
I fail to see how it's obvious. I've met a few famous people, why not Dr. Ed?
It's not like once you become famous you retreat to some secret island and associate only with famous people. You're living in the same world with the rest of us.
Why, this may shock you, but many famous people actually do their own grocery shopping, and crazy stuff like that. Even have non-famous friends, frequently.
In fact, I once met Dr. Ed but it was before his doctorate when he was still living behind Wilbur Post's house.
Because Dr. Ed's a notorious liar, and his story — like all his stories — is just far too convenient.
You make terrible legal arguments, but I wouldn't doubt you met someone if you said you did. Dr. Ed is different.
So we have another O.J. Simpson running loose, except that Cosby isn't able to claim that he was the victim of a racist setup, and no cross section of the population is applauding at this point.
It reminds me a bit of Jonathan Pollard. The guy was clearly guilty of espionage. But the government played dirty tricks to get his plea and then reneged on their promises The Court is then left with the unpleasant task of deciding whether to let the guilty off or punish the prosecutors for playing games.
The Court is then left with the unpleasant task of deciding whether to let the guilty off or punish the prosecutors for playing games.
Is deciding to apply the law as they find it, and letting the consequences take care of themselves, not a permissible option ?
I agree with the partial concurrence/partial dissent here.
The Commonwealth violated Mr. Cosby’s constitutional rights. But the violation consisted, not in subsequently changing the initial decision not to prosecute him, but in using the deposition he gave in reliance on that initial decision against him in the subsequent prosecution.
I would therefore remedy the violation by suppressing his testimony in the covil trial. If Mr. Cosby can show that other evidence used by the prosecution was discovered as result of relying on the promise of immunity, I would also suppress all evidance resulting from this reliance.
If however, the Commonwealth can convict Mr. Cosby at a retrial based only on evidence which is not traceable to any reliance on a promise of immunity, I would uphold that conviction.
Then there's no evidence left to convict him.
I would say that if you've made a mistake like this and the defendant has already served a couple years and you don't have any solid evidence except the testimony . . . then its not really in the interests of justice (even if it might be procedural correct) to send the defendant back to a new trial.
*Especially* if you're trying to send a message to prosecutors to stop trying to be cute and jump through these sorts of hoops to secure a 'win'.
Bruce Castor is a discredited Pennsylvania politico (sample headline: 'Everybody Hates Bruce Castor') who most recently distinguished himself (after alienating nearly all Democrats and most Republicans in his home state) by emerging as a particularly comical member of Trump Election Litigation: Elite Strike Force.
I am not greatly familiar with the circumstances involving Cosby, but it wouldn't take much to get me to bet heavily that Castor botched the case, perhaps for ugly reasons.
Even if he was correct that a civil suit was the best way for the victim to achieve a just result, I'm at a loss to see how he could have thought that a grant of immunity (whether by press release or legitimate means) was the correct result. Absent any action by the DA's office, presumably Cosby would have asserted his Fifth Amendment privilege at his deposition, at which point the victim would have been able to argue that the fact finder should draw an adverse inference from that invocation. Or is there some angle that I'm missing here?
Try to find anyone (other than Kathleen Kane, who is in prison, or Donald Trump, whose company seems likely to be charged criminally tomorrow) willing to say anything complimentary about Bruce Castor.
I don't spend much time in prison or huddling with those trying to avoid prison these days, so maybe Kane and Trump have soured on Mr. Castor, too, and I just haven't heard about it.
Prosecuting someone for not declaring a parking space on his state income tax return strikes me as quite petty -- instead you send him a bill for the unpaid tax.
Very 3 felonies a day, isn't it?
It seems to a matter of $1.7 million.
$1.7 million is just for starters.
To see where this is headed -- unless Weisselberg is ready to spend most of the rest of his life in prison, and even that might not thwart prosecutors -- read the New York Times' document-based analysis of the Trump organization's decades of flouting myriad tax laws.
No, that seems to be correct, and puzzled me also.
That would be the usual way things proceed. But (1) the adverse inference is not mandatory and (2) depending on the facts of the case, it only takes you so far. Just because Cosby raped women ten years before, does not mean he raped the plaintiff. So the prosecutor may have felt that going down that road would be too uncertain. Hard to know without studying the facts intesively.
Striking defeat for the feminist enemy. He can probably make $billion on a concert tour. I would certainly attend.
I'm thinking of the Iran-Contra hearings. Oliver North shows up in the center ring of the circus and says those soft on communism, soft on national defense morons behind the desk aren't getting anything out of him. Well, the literal words were an invocation of his Fifth Amendment rights but that's how I heard it. Then the TV announcer, with the benefit of prior legal advice, said this was all part of a preplanned ritual rather than a show of defiance. North had to make a pro forma assertion of his rights. Then the committee handed him the piece of paper saying by the power of God I COMMAND you to testify. The grant of immunity was formally in effect and everybody continued with the script.
So I learned back then that you don't trust a promise of immunity unless all the paperwork is in order.
If you wanted to identify two reprehensible public figures in America, impossible to go wrong with Oliver North and Bill Cosby.
And this is in a nation still afflicted by Henry Kissinger and Erik Prince.
What a striking defeat this was for the feminist and for the Democrat enemy of our nation. They were sent packing.
That being said, I have to question Cosby's tastes. I would not bother with flat chested women who are uglier than horses. When someone is asleep, to me, the date is over, not just beginning.
One is faced with an embarrassment of riches in that area. Lon Horiuchi still walks a free man, for instance. And I'm fairly certain that neither North nor Cosby ever shot a mother in the neck while she stood there holding her baby.
I see a number of comments to this post that Cosby wasn't forced to testify, but that is not the case according to the decision: "Cosby was forced to sit for four depositions. That he did not—and could not— choose to remain silent is apparent from the record. When Cosby attempted to decline to answer certain questions about Constand, Constand’s attorneys obtained a ruling from the civil trial judge forcing Cosby to answer."
I think that this is the critical part. It isn’t that Cosby’s attorneys were stupid or trusting, but rather that the judge in the civil case relied on the previous DA’s promise not to prosecute in order to force Cosby to testify against himself.
Keep in mind that you can invoke your 5th Amdt right against self incrimination in a civil suit if that testimony COULD be used against you in a criminal trial. Cosby is asked questions in civil depositions where the answers could, and did, incriminate him in a criminal case. He tries to refuse because of the self incrimination. The civil case judge essentially denies his 5th Amdt assertion on the grounds that his testimony can’t be used against him in a criminal trial, because the DA promised not to prosecute him criminally. New DA says “not my promise” and uses the compelled testimony from the civil case depositions against Cosby, to get a conviction. The appeals court essentially said that the civil court judge (detrimentally) relied on the government’s (previous DA) promise not to prosecute in order to deny Cosby’s assertion of his 5th Amdt rights, so the government (new DA) can’t utilize that he is a different DA to get to use that testimony in the new criminal trial.
“The civil case judge essentially denies his 5th Amdt assertion on the grounds that his testimony can’t be used against him in a criminal trial, because the DA promised not to prosecute him criminally.”
That's not what happened. Cosby's lawyers never asserted a 5th Amendment right not to answer questions in the civil case, presumably based on the belief that Cosby would not face a criminal prosecution.
Also, the trial court rejected the claim that the DA promised not to prosecute Cosby. You are free to disagree with the trial court's interpretation of the evidence, but chances are that the trial court examined the evidence a lot more carefully than you have.
I have to admit it. That appellate lawyer is worth his $million.
In my mind, that is game, set, and match. The judge is a member of the judiciary, which is a branch of the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania. The Commonwealth compelled him to testify over his asserted privilege. Perhaps the judge’s ruling was erroneous, but using that testimony against him in the criminal case violated his rights. End of story.
I think some of you are making a mistake in conflating the DA's authority to grant him immunity and violating his Fifth Amendment rights. You can do the latter without the former. If the cops beat a confession out of him, that would be both beyond their authority and a blatant violation of his rights. Using that testimony against him would be forbidden by the Fifth Amendment, regardless of the cops' authority.
Someone here opined that the Commonwealth should be allowed to proceed against him but not use his testimony (or anything that may derive from it). I think that is right. If the DA lacked authority to grant him immunity, then they can still prosecute him. They just cannot use the coerced testimony against him.
Suppose, to give a silly hypothetical, the civil trial judge ruled that Cosby had no Fifth Amendment rights, on the wacky theory that celebrities who endorse unhealthy sugary desserts have forfeited their Fifth Amendment rights. That is crazier than reliance on the DA's press release here. Nevertheless, if the civil trial judge forced him to testify on pain on contempt, then his testimony could not be used in a later criminal proceeding without violating his Fifth Amendment rights.
According to the opinion he didn't assert any privilege during the deposition, he just declined to answer. Opposing counsel then moved for an order to compel which the court granted, without the 5th ever making an appearance. P. 64:
Castor's press release, and any verbal promises he might allegedly have made not to prosecute (hereafter "Castor's decision") *at most* gave Cosby immunity to prosecution by the State of Pennsylvania. Yes in his deposition he admitted to giving Quaaludes to other women. These incriminating admissions potentially could have been used against him, if he were ever to be prosecuted for another assault by a different state.
Therefore his fifth amendment right not to testify against himself must have survived Castor's decision. Since he didn't raise this privilege in opposition to the motion to compel, he waived it.
What's wrong with the above analysis.
...Yet in his deposition...