The Volokh Conspiracy
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The Nature of Criminal Law Conventions
The unwritten, binding, and evolving norms that supplement statutory criminal law.
In this post, I want to explore two features of criminal law conventions in more depth: custom and obligation.
There are two broad theories of common law. The predominant theory today, influenced by the legal realists, is that common law is a form of judge-made law—that is, judges promulgate common law through their rulings. Someone has to make the law. As Justice Holmes famously claimed, "The common law is not a brooding omnipresence in the sky but the articulate voice of some sovereign or quasi-sovereign that can be identified …."
But there is a much older tradition (about which Steve Sachs has written a great article) asserting that judges find the law rather than promulgate it. This tradition views the common law as consisting of binding customs that society recognizes, even though no authority has promulgated it. These customs form through a decentralized process. And as Sachs explains in his article, legal customs are not unique; we routinely recognize "familiar norms of fashion, etiquette, or natural language" as binding even though no one has authoritatively pronounced them.
Criminal law conventions resemble customary law in this latter sense. Like the common law, the customs are defined despite the lack of formal promulgation by a person acting with legislative or judicial authority, they evolve over time, and they are widely understood by the public and by those in authority as binding.
To illustrate these features, I give three categories of examples in the article: desuetudinal laws, traffic offenses, and the boundaries of federal criminal law. Start with desuetudinal crimes, which are crimes that have long been widely and openly ignored (e.g., adultery). The existence of these crimes presents a challenge to our concepts of legality. On the one hand, they are statutory law, and in most jurisdictions, no internal legal rule renders these laws unenforceable. On the other, there is widespread recognition that the conduct prohibited by these laws is not unlawful de facto. When former New York Gov. David A. Paterson was confronted with evidence of adultery, he declared publicly, "I didn't break the law"—which he could say honestly, even though adultery theoretically remains a misdemeanor in New York.
A second example consists of traffic offenses. Virtually all people who drive commit traffic offenses—probably every time they are on the road. Speed limits are set too low. The general recommendation is that speed limits should be set to the 85th percentile speed of traffic. Real-world speed limits are about 10 to 15 miles per hour underneath that. Ultimately, executive nonenforcement compensates. For example, in Virginia courts in 2018, only 40 of 590,000 speeding cases involved drivers speeding less than five miles per hour over the limit. (It is unclear whether these tickets are actually for de minimis speeding or if some officers reduced the ticket.) We all know that the real speed limit is about 10 to 15 miles per hour over the real limit, and police largely respect the convention.
A third example concerns the boundaries of state and federal criminal law. As many scholars have criticized, the number of federal crimes has exploded over the past 140 years, and it now heavily duplicates state criminal law. But real federal criminal law is not that pervasive. Contemporary federal criminal law heavily involves immigration, drugs, guns, and fraud. Federal statutes against domestic violence, carjacking, guns in school zones, and motor vehicle theft largely go unenforced.
Within these offenses, there are widely understood norms dividing federal and state jurisdiction. The federal government generally prosecutes drug trafficking, but leaves drug possession to the states. The federal government also prosecutes cases in which prosecutors believe more severe federal sentences are warranted. In felon in possession gun cases, for example, federal prosecutors generally target those who have more significant criminal histories or who may be a danger to the community.
Much like common law, these customs evolve as society's norms evolve, and in many cases, these norms developed when someone violated the old norms. Until the 1970s, gun crimes were treated as state offenses, even though federal law began regulating ordinary firearms in 1938. In the 1980s and '90s, federal prosecutors more aggressively prosecuted federal gun crimes, overcoming resistance from federal judges that their courtrooms were being "transformed into a minor-grade police court." Gun cases are now a large fraction of the federal criminal docket, and that trend has been relatively stable.
We can see that evolution in progress today. The federal government, for example, generally does not interfere with the possession of marijuana for medical use when allowed by state law, even though possession remains (for now) a federal crime. Sanctuary cities, whether for immigration or guns, are an effort to establish broader decriminalization norms. Statutory law can be difficult to amend or repeal. But conventional criminal law, much like common law, continually evolves.
The other critical feature of criminal law conventions is that they are accepted as binding in some form. While it may be easy to write off much of what I have written above as just reflecting prosecutorial discretion, I think that kind of rationalization fails to capture how deeply some norms are held and the consequences for violating them.
Take the Gun Free School Zones Act example that I gave in my previous post. Just like one could ask whether the Queen can veto a bill, one could ask whether an assistant United States Attorney could prosecute an off-duty police officer for unlawfully carrying a firearm in a school zone. As with the British constitutional example, the formal legal answer is yes. If the assistant U.S. Attorney brought such charges, the judge could not dismiss it because he thought the law was bad or stupidly applied in an individual case. Yet, the real-world answer is likely no. If a U.S. Attorney filed such a charge, the political blowback from the law enforcement community would be so intense that any such prosecution would be dropped and the politically appointed U.S. Attorney could very well be fired. Even if the case somehow got to trial, there would be a substantial risk that the jury would acquit notwithstanding the evidence. Given this reality, federal prosecutors do not try to bring such charges regardless of their personal views of the merits.
Or take the speeding example. One might claim that in a world where everyone speeds, the police have to direct their resources towards the most serious violators. But the executive branch does not pursue all technical speeders even where no such resource constraints exist. The District of Columbia, for example, has widely deployed speed cameras. Just like they now ticket every red-light violator at places where red-light cameras are installed, the District could automatically ticket every driver who exceeds the speed limit by one mile per hour or more. But the District does not; as a matter of course, speed camera tickets are not issued for speeding within 10 miles per hour of the limit. The District respects the conventions on traffic from a sense of obligation and with recognition that some form of non-legal sanction may result if they are not followed.
There is, however, one critical difference between criminal law conventions and constitutional conventions of the kind existing in the British system. Constitutional conventions are rigid rules for which deviation would be a high-publicity event. If the Queen vetoed one bill, no matter how unimportant, the entire country would notice and it would provoke a constitutional crisis.
The same is not true for criminal law conventions. Deviations from conventions are often low-information events that target unsympathetic individuals. If police began strict enforcement of speed limits, they (and the community's elected officials) may suffer political consequences. But nothing stops police from engaging in isolated targeting of drivers. In many cases, these may be pretextual stops to search for evidence of other crimes.
I will have more to say about the pretextual issue in my last post when I discuss how we should shape legal doctrine around a primarily conventional criminal law system. For now, I will end by flagging that, unlike constitutional conventions, criminal law conventions are susceptible to isolated, low-cost deviations, which trigger fairness and rule of law concerns.
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The gun free school zone issue is a bad choice of illustration: This law was originally struck down by the Supreme court on constitutional grounds, and though reenacted with added findings, there's serious question whether it would be upheld if it ever showed up before the Court again.
It's not being left unenforced out of any convention, but instead to shield it from review.
The discussion is not over the constitutionality of the law, but about violations by off-duty police, and the optics of prosecuting off-duty police; I imagine a lot of parents, even the rabidly anti-gun variety, would actually approve of armed off-duty police in a gun-free school zone.
Still, we're not talking about a law they're failing to enforce in the case of off duty police. We're talking about a law they're basically not enforcing AT ALL, in the sense it was intended to be enforced.
It gets enforced on actual school grounds, and as a sentence enhancement, but not under any circumstances that might generate a good test case.
Why are you so desperate to hijack the article? The constitutionality of the law is irrelevant for the purposes of this article.
I'm just pointing out that this is a bad example of a law that's not enforced as a matter of convention, because they have a very clear and obvious non-convention reason for the failure to enforce.
He could have picked a law that hadn't already been struck down once as unconstitutional, and was clearly being left unenforced for some reason besides protecting it from judicial review.
But as I've noted, the reason you're identifying is no reason at all.
The more likely reason, it seems to me, is that it's fairly unusual for a person who is otherwise legally allowed to have a gun to get caught carrying one in a school zone unless the police are investigating them for simultaneously committing another, more serious crime.
As amended, 18 U.S.C. § 922(q) only applies to firearms that have moved in interstate or foreign commerce. I don't see how it's even arguably unconstitutional without a complete revolution in commmerce clause jurisprudence.
There ought to be a complete revolution in interstate commerce clause jurisprudence.
But that aside, the idea that, once something has "moved in" interstate commerce, it is forever subject to arbitrary federal regulation, is mad. The gun free zone act isn't a regulation of interstate commerce AT ALL, it's just a regulation of things that at one time were involved in it.
However mad you may find it, I don't think that there's any serious possibility of five Supreme Court justices striking it down—much less that the government is refraining from seeking indictments to avoid giving them the chance to do so.
They already struck it down once. And on the exact basis I'm citing: That it wasn't really regulating interstate commerce. That's my basis for thinking they're trying to avoid giving the Court a second shot at it.
I'm mean this in the most respectful possible way, but you sound like someone who doesn't have anything but the most superficial understanding of the issues you're talking about, or how the case resolved them.
The statute at issue in Lopez prohibited carrying any firearm in a school zone. The government argued that the statute was constitutional because carrying a gun in a school zone inherently implicated interstate commmerce, and thus the statute was a necessary and proper exercise of the interstate commerce clause. The Supreme Court disagreed.
As amended, the statute prohibits carrying a firearm that has moved in interstate commerce in a school zone. I am sure you don't find that to be a very satisfying invocation of the commerce clause power (a proposition to which I'm not unsympathetic), but it's the basis for virtually all federal gun regulation, and I see very little basis to suppose that a single Supreme Court justice in the last 25 years is interested in re-examining it, much less that five are, much less that DOJ is so worried about that risk so as to change its case selection strategy.
After all, since interstate commerce is the opposite of privacy, once a contraceptive crosses state limes, the federal government ought to be able to regulate its use, and possession, however it wants.
1989 I took a job in Alabama. When I stopped for Lunch I came out to find two State Troopers looking at my car. I asked if there was a problem and was told no. They asked where I was going and I told them. Then they told me something. Do NOT try to hold the speed limit. If I tried, odds are that I would be in an accident. In other words if I tried to obey the law, I would be the safety hazard. They told me to keep pace with traffic. As long as I did that there would be no problem. It was the guy going faster that they were after. I got back on the Interstate and it was green flag racing at Talladega. 80 mph. all the way to Birmingham.
That's my general experience, in a lifetime of no speeding tickets: It's not a problem to violate the speed limit so long as you're not an outlier on the upper side. Just make sure you're not the one passing everybody, and not the one forcing everyone to pass you, and the police have no interest in you.
Until you hit a speed trap.
Omitted from the OP is that one of the reasons speed limits are artificially lower than the safe speed, and thus the prevailing speed of traffic, is to allow for revenues to be generated with speed traps. Artificially low and generally not enforced speed limits create a large pool of speeders, allowing the local community to generate predictable revenues by picking off speeders at a rate that is under police control.
If the speed limits were rigorously enforced, they would largely be observed, and ticket revenues wouldn't just drop, they would no longer be controlled by enforcement decisions, but instead by driver decisions, and the revenue would not be predictable.
That's a pessimistic view. Tho probably not wrong. I've gotten two speeding tickets on one specific block that everyone speeds down. And like clockwork, every third month near the end of the month a cop parks over there and hands out tickets like candy. Gotta fill those quotas.
Discretionary enforcement of traffic laws also permits local jurisdictions to enforce against people passing through, and not against locals, so that the revenue comes into the local government without impacting local voters.
Though locals tend to just know where the speed traps are. Where I lived in Michigan, the nearby town had a 35mph speed limit sign on one side of an intersection coming into town, and a 25mph speed limit sign on the other side of the intersection, behind a bush. All the locals were aware that the speed limit was actually 25, people just passing through would think it was 35, and get nailed.
These examples of discretionary enforcement should all be considered abusive behavior by law enforcement and the courts need to take away the discretion that makes them possible. The whole point of having laws is for the citizen to absolutely always have the ability to make himself safe from law enforcement by complying. Any enforcement practice that makes that impractical or unsuccessful is illegitimate.
If a victim puts up a fuss they're more likely to just drop it (after some initial resistance) rather than keep it going to where a higher authority could permanently end it.
A few years ago I took my Mother to visit my Sister and her Husband. A few days after we got back I got a letter in the mail with a citation from a speed camera. I knew I wasn't speeding, other wise my Mother would have been chewing me out about it. When I looked at the picture I could see at least six license plates. I called the number on the citation and requested a Court date. I was told that they didn't do that. Just send a check for $75. I insisted on a Court date. Finally I was put in touch with the right person to get one. I go into the Court and the Magistrate asks if I have anything to say? I told him that if he could point out which car in the picture that was being tracked by the camera's radar I'd plead "No contest." He said "You know how radar works?" I told him what I did in the Navy and yes I know how it works. "Case dismissed".
I'll take any and all bets that the other five cars who's license plates were visible in that picture were cited as well.
"The federal government, for example, generally does not interfere with the possession of marijuana for medical use when allowed by state law, even though possession remains (for now) a federal crime."
Not true if you hold a security clearance.
Did you not see the "generally" which you even quoted?
"Medical" marijuana is a weird situation because marijuana remains illegal but Congress has directed prosecutors not to enforce the law against state-legal medical users.
Thus it was written in paragraph 1.3.32 of Justinian's Digesta (quoting the 2nd century lawyer Salvius Julianus).
1. Inveterata consuetudo pro lege non immerito custoditur, et hoc est ius quod dicitur moribus constitutum. Nam cum ipsae leges nulla alia ex causa nos teneant, quam quod iudicio populi receptae sunt, merito et ea, quae sine ullo scripto populus probavit, tenebunt omnes: nam quid interest suffragio populus voluntatem suam declaret an rebus ipsis et factis? Quare rectissime etiam illud receptum est, ut leges non solum suffragio legis latoris, sed etiam tacito consensu omnium per desuetudinem abrogentur.
Or, in English translation:
1. Age-encrusted custom is not undeservedly cherished as having almost statutory force, and this is the kind of law which is said to be established by use and wont. For given that statutes themselves are binding upon us for no other reason than that they have been accepted by the judgment of the populace, certainly it is fitting that what the populace has approved without any writing shall be binding upon everyone. What does it matter whether the people declares its will by voting or by the very substance of its actions? Accordingly, it is absolutely right to accept the point that statutes may be repealed not only by vote of the legislature but also by the silent agreement of everyone expressed through desuetude.
A constitutional amendment on desuetude would help. Any government rule that has not been enforced in 5 years is void. These rules make the law look stupid.
I don't see any possible mechanism differentiating between laws that aren't enforced within a given time period because they're dumb/out-of-vogue/otherwise unpalatable ("blue laws") and laws that aren't enforced within a given time period because the violation, while significant, is rare (like treason). In either case you only know that nobody is being brought up on charges.
"We all know that the real speed limit is about 10 to 15 miles per hour over the real limit, and police largely respect the convention."
That rule of thumb is not consistent. In rural Texas 5 over can get you a ticket. On the same quality road in Upstate New York you have to be going 15 over to get a ticket. The difference is in Texas the road is posted 70 or 75 and in New York the road is posted 55.
Without automated enforcement police can not consistently ticket drivers for going with the flow of traffic. When the jurisdiction sets a very low speed limit, the enforcement tolerance has to be very large absent an aggravating factor (dark skin, out of state plates, etc.). When the jurisdiction sets a speed limit following engineering standards, it can be enforced.
And in Chicago the speed cams issue tickets for 6 over now.
“We all know that the real speed limit is about 10 to 15 miles per hour over the real limit, and police largely respect the convention.”
Except at the end of the month when they’re behind quota.
Prior to Lawrence v. Texas, when you had the kind of he said/she said dispute now so common in university campus cases, it was standard practice in a number of southern states to resolve it by convicting for violating the sodomy law. Consent isn’t a defense, so you don’t have to worry about it. And nobody indicted the accuser even if the accuser’s evidence turned out to be so weak that forcible-conduct charges were dismissed.
It achieved pretty much the same result the Left wants today, but for (in some sense) the exact opposite reasons.