Critics of the libertarian theory of property rights often claim that using a resource in someone else's possession without consent does not constitute aggression. How can it count as initiatory force when perhaps no force at all is used? If I see your bicycle leaning up against the fence at your home and use it, without asking, to run errands, how can it be said that I have initiated force against you? Sheldon Richman explains why libertarians reasonably interpret such acts as aggression.
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