DOMA Nation
I'll halfway agree with Andrew Sullivan: the decision upholding the Defense of Marriage Act, which permits states to refuse to recognize gay marriages performed in other states, is clearly a good thing politically to the extent that it kneecaps the Federal Marriage Amendment for the foreseeable future. I'm also genuinely sympathetic to the federalist argument, but it's hard for me to square this with the ruling in Loving v. Virginia.
Now, one obvious difference is that Loving concerned anti-miscegenation statutes, and while race has always been regarded as a "suspect class" under the 14th Amendment, automatically triggering strict scrutiny, sexual orientation is not, as yet, so regarded. As far as I know, it's never even been regarded at the intermediate level of gender classifications, triggering "heightened scrutiny." Still, when the judge in this case is paraphrased as saying that "the law was not discriminatory because it treats men and women equally" it's hard not to think of the parallel argument the state presented in Loving:
Thus, the State contends that, because its miscegenation statutes punish equally both the white and the Negro participants in an interracial marriage, these statutes, despite their reliance on racial classifications, do not constitute an invidious discrimination based upon race….Because we reject the notion that the mere "equal application" of a statute containing racial classifications is enough to remove the classifications from the Fourteenth Amendment's proscription of all invidious racial discriminations, we do not accept the State's contention that these statutes should be upheld if there is any possible basis for concluding that they serve a rational purpose.
As noted, though, the fact that race specifically was at issue played a key role in the rejection of that argument, so it's consistent as long as we're not considering sexual orientation a suspect class. Probably we should, but that's not the law (yet), so fine. There are, however, multiple roads to strict scrutiny. Another would be a finding that the state law burdened a "fundamental" right, but the Globe piece says that "[Judge] Moody said he could not declare marriage a 'fundamental right,' as lawyers for the women had urged him to do." I haven't read the decision itself yet, but this is a point where the language of the second component of the Loving ruling seems fairly straightforward at first blush:
These statutes also deprive the Lovings of liberty without due process of law in violation of the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. The freedom to marry has long been recognized as one of the vital personal rights essential to the orderly pursuit of happiness by free men.
Marriage is one of the "basic civil rights of man," fundamental to our very existence and survival…. To deny this fundamental freedom on so unsupportable a basis as the racial classifications embodied in these statutes, classifications so directly subversive of the principle of equality at the heart of the Fourteenth Amendment, is surely to deprive all the State's citizens of liberty without due process of law.
Emphasis above mine. I assume the ruling itself finds some way around that, but if that passage isn't meant to say there's a fundamental right to marry, I can't imagine what it is supposed to be saying.
UPDATE: Here's the opinion in PDF form. Scanning it quickly, I see that the Globe piece rather badly got this one wrong. The judge does recognize that there exists a fundamental right to marry, quite explicitly. He just unhelpfully adds that "no federal court has recognized that this right includes the right to marry a person of the same sex." This seems to get things backward. The order of reasoning in Loving is from the premise that there is a fundamental right to marry as one chooses to the conclusion that restrictions on the choice must meet a high burden, which racial classifications fail to do. To observe that the contours of "as one chooses" had not previously been held to encompass persons of other races in that case would have been obtuse, undermining the usefulness of the language of "fundamental rights" when it comes time to apply those rights in novel cases.
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Loving v. Virginia: How apropos.
I am reminded of the tourists ads of a few years back, "Virginia is for Lovers."
The most aptly named Supreme Court case until Bowers v. Hardwick...
so, assuming there is no equal protection issue at play here, if one is to say there is no due process liberty violation involved in denying the right to same-sex marriage, one must necessarily conclude that there is no "fundamental right" to marriage. i would pay to hear GWB try to explain how there can be no "fundamental right" to something that is the "fundamental foundation of our society." no one will ever ask him this, but i can at least get a kick out of posing the question over and over again in that mythical press conference in my mind.
If marriage is a fundamental right, I hereby proclaim my desire to excercise my right to marry Jennifer Aniston as soon as her and Brad Pitt are divorced.
I got first dibs, you losers.
Actually, if defending the institution of marriage is such a vital priority for the government, shouldn't there be a law against divorce?
Poor Brad Pitt: If such a law passes, he'll be forced to spend the rest of his life sleeping with Jennifer Aniston.
This is where the old saw "marriage is the union of one man and one woman" comes into play. Getting married is a fundamental right, but getting married is defined as committing yourself for life to one person of the opposite sex. It does not include multiple partners, same sex partners, or animals (according to the feds). Gay people have the fundamental right to marry, as defined above.
The Massachusetts marriage decision changed the definition of marriage, because the old definition violated our state constitution's guarantee of equal protection for gay people. (A guarantee that is more Talmud than Torah, but still has the weight of constitutional authority in a republican system that recognizes the existence of judicial review and common law). Thus, the definiion of marriage cannot discriminate against gay people any more than black people in my state.
I think Massachuetts' constitution is right, and the federal constitution wrong, on the question of whether sexual orientation should be covered by equal protection. But until this failure of federal Constitutional law is cleared up, the feds can define marriage in a way that denies equal protection to gay people without running afoul of the 14th amendment. Gay people have a right to marry, as defined by the government; they just don't have a right to have the government define marriage in a way that is fair to them.
Marriage is a form of contract and no contract is valid if one or both parties to it are unable to fulfill the conditions of the contract. Unless we set aside 5000 years of common and written law, the primary condition that must be fulfilled is that the union create a heterosexual couple.
Society must protect itself from the spectre and spectacle of not just homosexual marriage, but more importantly the monstrosity homosexual divorce. To substantiate this claim I give you exhibit A, The David Guest-Liza Minelli fiasco.
Nostar, show me a written law, prior to DOMA, that defines marriage as between one mand and one woman.
That doctrine is entirely common law.
It does not include multiple partners,...
speak for yourself gentile
In my opinion, common law being based on real world conditions and shaped and reshaped by reality is not given the respect it is due.
As for an early example of written law, check out the Code of Hamurabi which specifically details punishments for husbands and wives. Husband and husband or wife and wife are not considered with in the realm of marriage.
I forgot to add the jab: Does the COH predate the DOMA enough for you, Joe?
"Husband and husband or wife and wife are not considered with in the realm of marriage."
...because the COH accepts the common law definition of marriage that was around at the time.
Do you actually have a reference to a written law that defines marriage as heterosexual only, or just more examples of other laws that assume that assume the common law definition?
I was under the impression that the states aren't required to regonize marriages from other states anyway. They just do it out of reciprocal courtesy.
That has always been the situation, chilly, but the doctrine that undergirds this exemption from the "full faith and credit" clause, known as the "public policy exemption," is not written in the Constitution, but was a penumbra and emination. Thus, it is theoretically possible that the judiciary could fail to apply it.
Joe, What is your point? Common law is the foundation for written law.
I am no lawyer (Thank God!) but I am willing to bet you a latte that there exists, pre DOMA, written law that either defines marriage as being between a man and a woman or specifically precludes same gender marriages in the same way that incestuous marriage is precluded.
Yes, let's set aside 5000 years of common and written law. Just like with slavery.
(I thought I'd take this opportunity to ramp things up a bit, so we could retread all of the same arguments that have been passed around dozens of times before)
Here you go, Joe:
http://www.unrv.com/government/julianmarriage.php
120. Men must marry. Rome, 131 B.C. (fr. 6 Malcovati. L)
Speech of the censor Quintus Caecilius Metellus Macedonicus [16] about the law requiring men to marry in order to produce children. According to Livy (Per. 59), in 17 B.C. Augustus read out this speech, which seemed "written for the hour", in the Senate in support of his own legislation encouraging marriage and childbearing (see no. 121).
"If we could survive without a wife, citizens of Rome, all of us would do without that nuisance; but since nature has so decreed that we cannot manage comfortably with them, nor live in any way without them, [17] we must plan for our lasting preservation rather than for our temporary pleasure."
How much more explicit a law do you require? A man marrying a man would not fulfill this law.
B.P., Private property and ownership laws came from the same 5000 years of common and written law. Still want to set it aside?
Joe - a quick question. Why should it be a fundamental right for gay people to marry for "love" but not, say, a polygamist to marry two women for love or for a sister to marry her brother for love?
The simple fact is that we have defined marriage very specifically and without discrimination: a marriage is between one person of one sex and one person of another of a certain distance from each other in blood relationship. No exceptions. No multiple partners. No same-sex partners. No people and various farm animals.
Desire is of no importance whatsoever in this. It doesn't matter one bit, hard though this may sound, that a gay man may want very much to marry his partner. I'm sure that you can find more than a couple people who very much want to marry two women, their sister or brother, or the sheep they raised from a lamb. But they can't because we have defined marriage very specifically.
The problem is that is you broaden that definition because of "fairness" then there's no "fair" way you can avoid broadening it all the way.
Actually, NoStar, my point is nothing beyond the observation that, prior to DOMA, the heterosexual definition of marriage was common law, not written. I'm not sure what the implications of this are, just getting the facts straight.
On incestuous marriage, Massachusetts General Laws state that "No man shall marrry..." and go on to list a number of relatives. Then, "No woman shall marry..." and a list of male relatives. There is not statement about "no man shall marry another man" or any such thing.
Again, NoStar, the law you cite doesn't even bother to say, "A man must marry A WOMAN," but " Men must marry." It's just assumed that the spouse will be a woman. Look at the language - no black letter definition, because given the assumptions about what a marriage was, why would there need to be a such a definition?
The primary purpose of DOMA was to specify the definition of marriage for the purposes of regulatory bodies and benefit programs that fall under federal jurisdiction.
When Massachusetts defined marriage differently as a matter of constitutional fairness, they really created problems for anything mixed in jurisdiction. Benefits, especially insurance, are almost impossible to reconcile legally in both jurisdictions at the same time. Any investment plan that contains an annuity piece has similar problems. State laws can control investment vehicles, but federal regualtory bodies control certain types of plans and ALL insurance products.
You want to see ugly? One partner in a same sex marriage works for a company with offices in Massachusetts. He gets benefits that include an annuitized pension, 401(k), a non qualified retirement plan funded by insurance contracts, health insurance and life insurance. Quiz: What happens if the couple gets divorced?
I recently heard the comment that if you want to become wealthy, become a CPA in the northeast.
Oops. Change the above, states regulate all insurance - feds regulate retirement plans and securities.
jimmie,
None of the other cases you identify contain what is, for me, the key element of a marriage - what the Bible says so well, they "cleave to one flesh." There is this special thing between two married people, and gay married people have it. What exists between spouses of opposite sexes in a traditional marriage does not exist between a man and an animal, or a man and two women - but it does exist between two men or two women. If it walks like a duck, if it quacks like a duck, if it looks like a duck, it's a duck. I'm married, I'm a big believer in marriage, my parents are married, I know a marriage when I see one. People who claim that the defining traits of a marriage cannot exist between two people of the same sex either don't understand what those traits really are, or they misunderstand the relationship that can exist between two gay people.
Basically, it is possible for one man to be the spouse of another man, just as it is possible for a black woman to be the spouse of a white man. It is not possible for two women to be a spouse. It is not possible for an animal or a corpse to be a spouse. That's the difference.
Incest is a different matter. The public policy reasons for forbidding these marriages are too strong to ignore. If the public policy reasons given by anti-gay activists for denying gay marriages were similarly strong, I'd support their position, but they're not.
Jason, what was questioned in this case was the part of DOMA that you don't mention - the part that has nothing to do with federal jurisdiction, and affirms the authority of states to ignore marriages performed in other states.
Joe, The point of the Roman law was to increase procreation. It is self evident that only heteroesexual unions were worthy of falling under the institution of marriage.
Hey Joe,
There is always Jewish Law. Genesis 2:24 was written about 4 thousand years ago and I am sure it predates DOMA.
"Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh."
By definition a wife can only refer to the female partner in a marriage.
I'd like a double tall vanilla latte, please.
Yes, NoStar, that's exactly what I meant -- get rid of all law because I find one particular part disagreeable. It's the year zero! Thanks for remaining on point.
I'm trying to remember why it matters whether the specification of marriage being between a man and a woman was ever explicitly written down.
I'm not having any luck.
I share Julian's sentiment: DOMA might not be a great law, but if it keeps marriage a state issue and blunts some of the backlash against gay marriage (or at least the backlash at the federal level), the pragmatically it's a good thing.
Exactly, NoStar: it was self evident. It doesn't appear in the law, because it was assumed it wouldn't have to.
Again, please note the lack of, "and shall cleave unto his wife WHO SHALL BE A WOMAN." The point is, the requirement that marriage can only be between people of opposite sexes wasn't codified; it was just one of those things that "everybody knows." Like the sun revolving around the earth, or kings having God's stamp of approval.
Well today, we know better (some of us anyway).
Frankly I have no objection to incest marriage or polygamy as a matter of principle, provided that no coercion is involved. A sheep can't be a consenting party to a marriage so you can scratch that one from the slippery slope.
Joe, Wife can only refer to a female marriage partner. Now if the Bible had said "cleave unto his spouse" an argument could be made that gender was not specifically refered to in the passage.
But to be on the safe side, when i get home I'll check my interlineral English-Hebrew Bible.
Julian Sanchez,
I made this very same comparison regarding Loving just a few days ago when I fisking crimethink (its not exactly original either).
Race wasn't treated as a "suspect class" under the 14th Amendment until the 20th century, and the whole "strict scrutiny" argument comes from Korematsu
Also note what the Loving court wrote about marraige (they implied that it was a fundamental right) is also important and has played out in state court cases over the years.
Nostar,
Here's a clue, Anglo-American law is not in the main part derived from Roman law (meaning Justinian's code). Secondly, arguments from tradition - which is what yours is - are patently silly and fallacious without more than the tradition for them to stand on.
Jimmie,
Sure its discriminatory. Now, it may be the sort of discrimination that you like, but its pure sophistry to argue that the law doesn't discriminate against particular types of relationships.
joe, NoStar, etc.,
Why does the Bible's dictates matter again?
Gary, I was just quoting the Bible because it expressed the thought - cleave to one flesh - very well.
I'm not going to deny myself the best source of literary quotations in our culture just because you're still mad at your Sunday school teacher.
GaryG, It matters only to Joe's assumption that the specificity of gender has never been recorded in written law prior to DOMA.
btw: I couldn't wait to go home and look up the Hebrew. The word for wife used is specifically a feminine noun.
My own views on marriage is this: Marriage was a religious institution that predates the written law of governments. It was during the abominable times of the union of Church and State that the institution became a function under State control. I would argue that marriage be returned to the purview of Religion.
I love being a born again Christian/smart ass Libertarian.
"wife can only refer to female partner" because of common usage. If it was common for someone's wife to be another dude, the passage could have been written the same way. Again, the sex difference is assumed, not written in the law.
Joe, please see the post immediately above your latest.
joe,
The only Sunday School teacher I had was when I was about eight, and he gave me money for staying quiet. Trust me, I bear no animus against the fellow.
NoStar,
Then joe is wrong. Alaska's marraige statutes specifically forbid same-sex marraige and the language of those statutes preceded DOMA. Glad I was here to clear that up. 🙂
See Brause & Dugan v. Alaska (1998) where an Alaskan trial court describes Brause & Dugan's efforts to get married as starting in 1994 (two years prior to DOMA) and who the law as it was written at that time specifically forbade the state allowing them to legally marry as a same-sex couple.
No kidding Gary? I wonder when that law was passed.
NoStar, the fact that the noun is feminine actually proves, not disproves, my point, that the sex differences between married partners is an assumed, cultural difference, rather than a codified legal one.
If the passage read, "...and shall cleave unto his WIVES..." it wouldn't be a law mandating polygamy, merely an observation that polygamy existed, and was the norm.
joe,
No kidding. 1991 as I recall.
Joe,
That would depend on the original word used for "shall" being merely descriptive or imperative.
Here is a link to the case cited above (I assume most folks don't have Westlaw, so I had to improvise):
http://www.waf.org/familyarchives/marriage/Alaska%20gay-marriage%20ruling.htm
1991, as in, well into the era of gay advocacy, and an attempt to head it off.
In other words, it codified what already existed as common law, because the legislature recognized that common law might change.
joe,
Its pre-DOMA though.
Now, why doesn't that part of the Constitution apply any more?
Wait, joe.
You want to take a quality you can't define but whose definition you think it summed up best in the Bible and make that the reason to pass a law? You are kidding about that, right?
And how, exactly, can you tell me that what...feelings, quality, miscellaneous undefineable thing....exist between a gay couple and a heterosexual couple don't exist between a man and two women or a woman and three men? You're using the same argument that was used about pornography: "I can't define it but I'll know it when I see it" that's proven legally useless over the last 50 years or so. I dare say that I could show you polyamorous relationships right now that display all the...whatever...that any other marriage or gay relationship would display. I know because...well, I've seen it.
But I'm not going to let personal observations I can't couch in at least semi-solid terms be my basis for suggesting law.
Here's a theory/question from a person with no legal training: suppose you try a lawsuit by finding some heterosexuals who discovered after many years of marriage that their spouse was a closeted homosexual all along, who has just come out of the closet. I'm sure that is quite devastating for the heteros involved.
Isn't there some way that man+woman only marriage laws could be challenged on the grounds that the government's use of such limits hurts a lot of heterosexuals who fall in love with and marry homosexuals (who may feel that if they want to get married, they have no other choice but to give this hetero stuff the old college try)? I mean, not only is there no compelling interest for the State here, but it's actually causing damage to a lot of heterosexuals who want nothing more than to have stable Cleaver families, only to stumble because the government is artificially flooding the market with bad choices?
Thought experiment:
A male (XY chromosome pair) marries a female (XX chromosome pair). Later, the man decides he wants to be female, so he has a sex change operation. He now looks like a female, no longer has testes, cannot fulfill his "husbandly duties" as would be understood under common law.
Are these people still married? If the marriage ended, could the XY-individual remarry? Which set of chromosomes would the XY-individual be allowed to marry?
This isn't a hypothetical. Here in Portland, the former color commentator for the Portland Winterhawks hockey team is such an XY-individual.
See http://www.portlandtribune.com/archview.cgi?id=24412
http://www.portlandtribune.com/archview.cgi?id=26371
Bonus points: in November, Oregon passed a constitional amendment defining marriage to be between one man and one woman.
raymond, it's not a case of the full faith and credit clause no longer applying, or even of there being a change in its application. There has always been a "public policy" exception. It's comparable to the "fire in a crowded theater" exception to the First Amendment - that doesn't appear in the text either.
I don't know what to tell you, jimmie, except that marriage predates the state. The state can recognize the reality that a marriage exists, or not, but that doesn't change the fact that the marriage exists.
I can't prove in a rational manner that the special thing that makes a marriage real exists between a heterosexual couple, either. Do you have a problem with me suggesting that the government recognize those marriages, or is it just gay people whose lifelong commitments to each other require such a high degree of skepicism?
Wasn't one reason the Mormons had to give up polygamy before Utah could be a state that clause?