Brian Doherty | November 25, 2008
A blast from the stagflation past (and future)? The audio track from Nobel laureate F.A. Hayek's June 22, 1975, appearance on "Meet the Press." Against all odds and all the interviewers, he steadfastly maintains that inflation is a monetary phenomenon, and the government's fault.
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"He steadfastly maintains that inflation is a monetary phenomenon, and the government's fault."
It was crazy that even as late as 1975 people still didn't
understand what inflation was. It was crazy because you didn't need
free market types like Hayek or Mises or Hazlitt or Friedman to
explain it to you, because the big government macroeconomists like
knew it too. They have have quibbled whether inflation was good or
bad, but no self-respecting economist disagreed that inflation was
a monetary policy.
Are we any better today? I like to imagine we are. But I'm probably
just being naively optimistic.
People still don't know what inflation is. I have the Austrian ball breakers on here all the time claiming it's defined as ANY increase in the money supply - like they can even define "the money supply" with any consistency.
"What rate of unemployment do you think this country ought
to be willing to tolerate in order to beat inflation?"
Oh, those heady Phillips Curve days.
I have the Austrian ball breakers on here all the time claiming it's defined as ANY increase in the money supply - like they can even define "the money supply" with any consistency.
How do you define inflation with consistency? I want an
objective measure, not one chosen subjectively by a set of
economists on the government dole. Subjective measures are not
helpful, especially when they are created by those whose interest
is in keeping them as unhelpful as possible.
"The money supply" may be impossible to precisely measure, but
there are easily-defined proxies that can give us an idea of its
rate of growth over time, thus giving us an objective definition
for inflation. See MZM, M2, and M3 for three good examples.
The Austrians' key contribution to the field of economics is a
theory about the effect of money supply increases on prices. To
make this as clear as possible, they define inflation as the
action, and assign its responsibility to the central
banks, which have primary control over the money supply by having a
government-enforced monopoly on the printing press.
Defining inflation in any other way offers no insight into its
cause. The Austrians want the rest of you to understand that
inflation doesn't just "happen": it occurs for a reason, and they
argue a very simple and intuitive reason at that. The easiest way
to understand their insight is to imagine the effect of printing up
and handing everyone in the world $1,000,000: what do you think
would happen to prices if this were to happen?
How do you define inflation with consistency?
Good point, it's not any easier than defining money supply. Broadly
speaking it's increases in prices. The devil is in the details, of
course...
"The money supply" may be impossible to precisely measure, but
there are easily-defined proxies that can give us an idea of its
rate of growth over time, thus giving us an objective definition
for inflation. See MZM, M2, and M3 for three good
examples.
The conclusions we would draw from those three measures are wildly
different. No so with three more common measures of inflation: CPI,
PCE, GDP deflator.
The Austrians' key contribution to the field of economics is a
theory about the effect of money supply increases on prices. To
make this as clear as possible, they define inflation as the
action, and assign its responsibility to the central banks, which
have primary control over the money supply by having a
government-enforced monopoly on the printing press.
This is kind of like defining a "guy with a cigarette" to be a
"forest fire" because one can cause the other and it makes that
possibility clearer.
Defining inflation in any other way offers no insight into its
cause.
And yet, that's not the point of a definition. As the risk of
channeling Slick Willie - let me say: It depends a great deal on
what your definition of "definition" is...
This is kind of like defining a "guy with a cigarette" to be a "forest fire" because one can cause the other and it makes that possibility clearer.
A better analogy would be defining "the guy with his hand on the
still-burning flamethrower" to be the cause of "the house fire that
just erupted next door": maybe you can't prove deductively that he
lit the house on fire, but it's pretty damn clear... especially
when the exactly same thing has happened to the same guy a dozen
times before.
...flamethrower...
Until you can point to a time when the Fed actively stoked triple
digit inflation, this is preposterous hyperbole. Inflation is not
pregnancy: you can be "a little inflationary."
The rate of money increase has FAR exceeded the rise in prices.
Deflationary Austrians say "sure, but the 'natural' direction of
prices is for them to decrease - otherwise is THEFT!!!"
This is like my first squadron commander who said: when you are
early, you are on time, when you are on time you are late. It's
useful for highlighting the fact that he wanted people to be on
time - but kinda dim if you really are trying to coordinate a
meeting at a specific point in time.
The rate of money increase has FAR exceeded the rise in prices.
You are the only one (apparently) claiming that Austrians think an
X% increase in the money supply will immediately result in an X%
increase in prices. On the contrary, price increases will occur
over some unpredictable period of time and hit some assets more
quickly and/or at a greater magnitude than others. (For reference,
see the housing bubble.) Eventually, the inevitable bust will
destroy some of that money that has been created, but the remaining
increase will ultimately reflect itself in higher prices for all
things, notwithstanding productivity increases.
More fundamentally, how could a dollar be worth the same if you
(say) doubled the number of them in circulation? Doubling the
number of dollars would be equivalent to changing the numbers on
the corners to read "2" instead of "1". "1" doesn't by itself
represent the value of that dollar in trade; all it represents is
an arbitrary unit of measure. How those units exchange for capital
and goods is exclusively a function of the balance between supply
and demand for each of those units. It seems pretty clear that if
you double the supply everywhere simultaneously without doubling
the demand, the value of each will be cut in half.
In this case, the supply isn't being doubled everywhere
simultaneously: the new supply is being given to politically
well-connected people first, and then over the course of years
works its way through the economy to the rest of society, by which
time the value of each has decreased to reflect the increased
supply that is now sufficiently spread-out to affect prices across
the board.
Deflationary Austrians say "sure, but the 'natural' direction of prices is for them to decrease - otherwise is THEFT!!!"
None of the Austrians I know say that. They say that giving a group
of men monopoly control over the printing press leads to inflation.
Nothing you have said here argues effectively against that simple
hypothesis.
You are the only one (apparently) claiming that Austrians
think an X% increase in the money supply will immediately result in
an X% increase in prices.
More fundamentally, how could a dollar be worth the same if you
(say) doubled the number of them in circulation? Doubling the
number of dollars would be equivalent to changing the numbers on
the corners to read "2" instead of "1".
Apparently I am not the only one!
Productivity is not the only other variable. There is also the
velocity of money - half that, and you must expand 2x to maintain
price stability.
They say that giving a group of men monopoly control over the
printing press leads to inflation.
Then why hasn't it in the US? And before you start - no channeling
Ron Paul with scary sounding comparisons of how many pennies a 1910
dollar is worth today (which use compounding to make a small rate
seem like a big problem) - just give me the rates.
I have the Austrian ball breakers on here all the time
claiming it's defined as ANY increase in the money
supply
Inflation is an increase in the money supply without a
corresponding increase in actual produced wealth.
You are the only one (apparently) claiming that Austrians think an X% increase in the money supply will immediately result in an X% increase in prices.
More fundamentally, how could a dollar be worth the same if you (say) doubled the number of them in circulation? Doubling the number of dollars would be equivalent to changing the numbers on the corners to read "2" instead of "1".
Apparently I am not the only one!
I conclude you are trolling now. Go back and read what I said about
doubling simultaneously vs. giving new supply to politically
well-connected people.
Inflation isn't a monetary phenomenon if we, like, destroy lots
of stuff.
We just have to destroy stuff in well-proportioned baskets of goods
(which is very easy since we already have the baskets constructed
for estimating inflation!) until scarcity drives up prices.
It's not only a substitute for complex, difficult to calibrate
monetary policy; it's also a jobs program!
I'll
start breaking windows.
how do changes in population fit in? Money velocity? We can argue about the causes of inflation all day long - and we'd find a lot of common ground there, I think. But my main issue is that inflation doesn't sloppily get defined as something it isn't.
I conclude you are trolling now.
No... You are the one who put two diametrically opposed thoughts in
the same post - it's not my fault if having that pointed out pisses
you off.
how do changes in population fit in? Money velocity? We can argue about the causes of inflation all day long - and we'd find a lot of common ground there, I think. But my main issue is that inflation doesn't sloppily get defined as something it isn't.
Okay, let's stop using the word "inflation", and simply call the
Austrian variant a "money supply increase" and the US government
variant "subjectively-defined goods basket price increases".
The latter does seem a whole lot harder to reason about: hell, the
US government is projecting inflation of a whole *4%* this year,
despite the fact that everything I have been eating has gone up by
almost 50% over the past year. Almost convenient that it's too
complex to analyze. I guess we can't figure out why this is
happening. Too bad: time for more stimulus!
You are the one who put two diametrically opposed thoughts in the same post - it's not my fault if having that pointed out pisses you off.
Except that they aren't diametrically opposed. Go back and read it
again. I'll wait. Reading comprehension is difficult, but reading
is fundamental.
Almost convenient that it's too complex to
analyze.
They break down the CPI into categories, if
that's helpful.
They break down the CPI into categories, if that's helpful.
It's helpful, but each category still takes into account a
subjectively-determined hedonic regression that is undoubtedly
chosen to make the numbers look as low as possible.
Sorry, but over the years I have come to assume malice rather than
incompetence on the part of government officials.
Except that they aren't diametrically opposed. Go back and
read it again. I'll wait. Reading comprehension is difficult, but
reading is fundamental.
Nope - still not impressing me. I *get* what you are trying to say
here - but you are leaving out some important things like
evidence.
To wit: why, if the money supply has increased at a rate of 10% has
price inflation been only 3%? Despite the fullness of time which
allowed the money to work through the economy.
Inflation (as I properly define it) depends on Quantity, velocity,
productivity, credit, financial innovations, investment preferences
to name just a few. Sadly, the austrian view focuses almost solely
on the quantity - and even in doing that screw up a lot of the
analysis.
I won't apologize for the hedonics part.
I'll just say subsititution is a real phenomenon that can't be
ignored in the construction of price indices.
Now, unfortunately people feel compelled to use a price index to
talk about monetary policy. That's a pity, and we can certainly
blame government officials for saying the numbers indicate stuff
they don't indicate.
You can make the same argument against those talking about the
health of the economy using the dollar/euro exchange rate or the
DJIA.
CPI catagories etc...
On the basket: Goods baskets are not meant to be used to predict
standard of living (as they have come to be used by unions,
government pensions, etc.) They are an economic statistic that is
supposed to guage the overall level of prices in the economy.
Squarooticus rightly points out that prices for different segments
fluctuate all the time - this is not inflation. Just because there
is an oil bubble that then popped doesn't mean "inflation" which is
why we average it out with other stuff. During truely inflationary
envionments we see steady or spiraling upward prices in many, if
not all, catagories of goods.
Hedonistic regression is a scary sounding term that inflation data
skeptics use to prove why the guvmint is lying to them. It's used
in a very small subset of item catagories (mostly electronics)
where it is absolutely required since the quality of goods changes
so fast.
The latter does seem a whole lot harder to reason about:
hell, the US government is projecting inflation of a whole *4%*
this year, despite the fact that everything I have been eating has
gone up by almost 50% over the past year. Almost convenient that
it's too complex to analyze. I guess we can't figure out why this
is happening. Too bad: time for more stimulus!
Just because it's easier to understand money supply increase
doesn't mean it's a better definition for inflation - but I will
agree to semantic detante, and use your terms (under duress!)
"Easier to understand" also doesn't mean it's a better quantity to
hold steady or even increase smoothly in any realistically complex
economy.
There are far too many shocks that could occurr in a "quantity
managed economy" that would result in deflationary spirals, credit
burstings, seasonal recessions, and many other distortionary or
otherwise needless harms. In my view - steady 2-6% inflation on a 4
decade + timescale is a dandy alternative.
I would think the obvious definition would be the change in the
ratio of money supply to productivity.
This might, possibly, be best measured by looking at a basket of
goods, although it seems a pretty abstract way of measuring it,
especially since defining a representative basket of goods seems
impossible.
Using my definition, 3 things would seem to be cause
inflation:
1. An increase in the physical amount of money
2. An increase in the velocity of money
3. A decrease in productivity
Balancing 1&2 with 3* would seem to be hard.
*3 being change in productivity in the last sentence.
To answer the question domo asked at 3:47, the 10% increase in money supply has mostly been balanced by an increase in productivity, hence only a 3% inflation rate.
domo,
Some of us lived thru the 70s where they couldnt manage to keep
inflation in that 2-6% range.
My question though is, why 2-6 instead of -2 to 2? If you can
balance a 4% range, why not one centered around zero so that money
maintains its value over time?
To answer the question domo asked at 3:47, the 10% increase
in money supply has mostly been balanced by an increase in
productivity, hence only a 3% inflation rate.
Except that productivity growth has been around 1% annualized over
that period - so yes, but...
Some of us lived thru the 70s where they couldnt manage to keep
inflation in that 2-6% range.
True. I presume it was really annoying, yet not enough to make you
get your pitchfork out, right? and to be fair, the stuff we are
talking about now, was hardly common knowledge at the time.
why 2-6 instead of -2 to 2?
Cause once it gets negetive, you have a devil of a time getting it
positive again.
BTW - nothing I've said contradicts the notion that inflation
(however you define it) is "always and everywhere a monetary
phenomenon."
I am arguing about what the best way to set up the system, and then
gauge it's effectiveness given that knowledge.
Good point, it's not any easier than defining money supply. Broadly speaking it's increases in prices.
You're both right. Due to the confusion over the term, "inflation"
now means *both* a general increase in prices *and* an increase in
the money supply. If one is to be accurate, one should use the
terms "monetary inflation" and "price inflation".
But the cause and effects are still clear: monetary inflation
causes price inflation. It is not the other way around. The
increase in money causes the increase in prices. To quote a
non-Austrian, "inflation is always and everywhere a
monetary phenomena".
why 2-6 instead of -2 to 2?
Because deflation is the big bogeyman everyone is scared to death
of. It's not discussed in polite economic circles. Merely
suggesting that deflation is a corrective mechanism for excessive
inflation is enough to get you disinvited from the better economic
soirees.
After the 1929 crash we had a period of excessive deflation that
turned a bust into a full blown depression. The money supply fell
by a third. That's a far cry from a mild -2%, but good luck finding
any mainstream economist who won't pee his pants at the thought of
it.
but good luck finding any mainstream economist who won't pee
his pants at the thought of it.
too right - and ith good reason. The usual tools "printing money"
by increasing bank reserves just dont do crap once deflation gets
cooking. You can only put the rate to zero - and as japan in the
90's proves - even quantitative easing doesn't do much.
Bernanke (ironically) said he would "drop money from helicopters"
to combat deflation in such a situation. This should give you some
idea of how inedequate current thought is when dealing with
deflation - Bernanke is recognized to be THE expert.
domo,
recognized by who?
AFAICT, he is an idiot. Probably not literally, but I wonder.
In pre-fed days, every deflationary period was followed by an
inflationary one to balance things out. Its easy to get out of
deflation. Just wait.
...but good luck finding any mainstream economist who won't pee his pants at the thought of it.
On a more serious note, prices include wages, so a deflation will
cause drops in wages. Declining wages and high unemployment are
things the American public don't tolerate very well, and will start
voting out congressmen over it. Thus government likes to keep
inflation well above zero line.
As for getting deflation back up above zero, it's only hard because
most instances of deflation were corrective episodes following
inflationary booms. It's damn hard getting rid of deflation when
the market is trying to correct itself. On the other hand, if we
have a low but steady target rate, it's not a problem if we
occasionally dip into the -2% range.
This whole discussion completely ignores tha fact tha when the
term inflation was invented by classical economists it was used to
refer to the ACTION of increasing the money supply. The action of
actually creating more pound notes.
So whatever problems you may have with the austrian definition, it
does make more historical sense than using the term to describe (as
CPI does) the consequences of inflation.
using the previous analogy... it is like the term "starting a fire" was redefined to mean "burning leaves" and we then argued about how much firestarting led to exactly how much % increase in burning bushes...
"Inflation (as I properly define it) depends on Quantity,
velocity, productivity, credit, financial innovations, investment
preferences to name just a few. Sadly, the austrian view focuses
almost solely on the quantity - and even in doing that screw up a
lot of the analysis."
Austrians focus on the main cause, the human cause, of a general
change in prices. You are talking about many mostly natural and
complicated causes of change in prices.
Austrians say if you manipulate prices, by manipulating the
quantity of money and credit you screw up capital structure of the
economy because you depress the interest rates, thus misrepresent
the time preference of people, thus causing booms and busts and on
top of that transfer wealth from some people to others.
The rest of the reasons, the natural reasons of price changes are
actually good because it spontaneously directs production and use
of scarce resources.
In short if you just focus on the changes of general price levels
you may get lost. Sometimes money and credit expands but doesn't
reflect on everyday goods prices but screws up the capital
structure just like during the 1920's and 1990's and early 2000
years.
For you to understand the monetary theory and the cycle theory you
have to understand the capital theory too.
In a barter economy, relative prices of every good can and would
fluctuate. But you wouldn't get a general rise in all prices (that
would be a paradox because every price would be in some other good)
or booms/busts cycles.
For those you need some thing in the middle of exchange that you
can manipulate.
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