The Volokh Conspiracy
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Does The Miscellaneous Receipts Act Apply To The President?
Under the clear statement rule, it likely will not.
There is much uncertainty concerning President Trump's plans with regard to revenue from Venezuelan oil. Now, there is some chatter now whether Trump may violate the Miscellaneous Receipts Act. This law provides, in part, "an official or agent of the Government receiving money for the Government from any source shall deposit the money in the Treasury as soon as practicable without deduction for any charge or claim."
Of course, the chatter has skipped over the threshold question: is the President subject to this statute? Ed Whelan does not resolve this issue in his post:
Whether or not the president is "an official … of the Government" for purposes of this provision, the subordinates who would be taking part in the actual receipt of the money surely are.
I think the most likely answer is that the President is not subject to this statute.
First, we have to consider the Clear Statement Rule in light of Franklin v. Massachusetts and Trump v. United States, coupled with OLC opinions from William Rehnquist and Antonin Scalia. Seth and I discussed this background in our recent post on the Posse Comitatus Act. This statute does not expressly reference the President, and we should not presume this prohibition should apply to the President.
Second, other elements of the statute reinforce the conclusion that the President should not be subject to this statute. Paragraph (f), for example, provides "(f) When authorized by the Secretary [of the Treasury], an official or agent of the Government having custody or possession of public money, or performing other fiscal agent services, may be allowed necessary expenses to collect, keep, transfer, and pay out public money and to perform those services." Do we really think the President needs to seek authorization from the Secretary of the Treasury, his subordinate? Paragraph (d) provides, "An official or agent not complying with subsection (b) of this section may be removed from office." I am fairly confident this provision is not referring to the impeachment process, especially of the President. Congress was referring to the firing of a civil servant.
Third, there is a relevant historical precedent. In 1805, the Tunisian Envoy arrived in the United States. He gave President Jefferson several valuable horses as a gift. Jefferson did not keep these gifts as his personal property, nor did he seek congressional consent to keep these gifts, but rather sold the horses to fund the envoy's stay in the United States. Jefferson did not ask Congress for permission before selling the horses. Jefferson basically kept the money from the sale of the horses in trust for the benefit of the envoy. (Seth Barrett Tillman and I wrote about this at page 332-337 in Part V of our series.) This history suggests that in the context of foreign policy, there may be very good reasons why the President would need to hold onto foreign money, and not deposit it into the treasury. All the more reason to follow the Clear Statement Rule.
There is a fourth argument that Seth shared with me. The Third Circuit addressed the meaning of the Miscellaneous Receipts Act in American Federation of Government Employees, AFL-CIO, Local 1647, Petitioner v. Federal Labor Relations Authority, 388 F.3d 405 (3d Cir. 2004). Judge Chertoff's opinion stated:
For purposes of the appropriations power, public money is defined broadly. As Justice Story observed in his Commentaries, it includes "all the taxes raised from the people, as well as revenues arising from other sources." 2 Joseph Story, Commentaries on the Constitution of the United States § 1348 (3d ed. 1858), quoted in Office of Pers. Mgmt. v. Richmond, 496 U.S. 414, 427, 110 S. Ct. 2465, 110 L. Ed. 2d 387 (1990). By law, public money includes money from any source such as taxes, customs and user fees, and other proceeds of government agency activities. See 31 U.S.C. § 3302 (Miscellaneous Receipts Act). The purpose of the Clause is to place authority to dispose of public funds firmly in the hands of Congress, rather than the Executive. Richmond, 496 U.S. at 425-27, 110 S. Ct. 2465; Cincinnati Soap Co. v. United States, 301 U.S. 308, 321, 57 S. Ct. 764, 81 L. Ed. 1122 (1937). This not only allows Congress to guard against "extravagance," Story, supra, but hands the Legislative Branch a powerful tool to curb behavior by the Executive. See generally Kate Stith, Congress' Power of the Purse, 97 Yale L.J. 1343 (1988). Without congressional permission, therefore, no money may be paid by the Treasury. Richmond, 496 U.S. at 427-28, 110 S. Ct. 2465; Reeside v. Walker, 52 U.S. (11 How.) 272, 291, 13 L. Ed. 693 (1850) (alternate holding).
Seth explained to me:
The goal of this statute is to protect government revenues by making a consolidated/unified Treasury where funds can only be removed by statute. But funds arising in connection in with Venezuelan oil are not property of the US -- unless there is some contract or other lawful basis to claim this property (and funds from its sale) belongs to the US. If not, then this is not "public money" and the statute is, in my opinion, not applicable.
Indeed, there is also a related issue of in what capacity the President might even accept these funds. Seth and I discussed the capacity issue here. I'm sure professors will invariably circle back to the Foreign Emoluments Clause. I sometimes feel like I'm living the ConLaw version of Groundhog Day.
Everyone needs to pump their brakes on whether President Trump might violate the Miscellaneous Receipts Act.
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What nonsense.
Does Blackman think Trump can just keep the money for himself because laws against embezzlement don't specifically mention the President?
What else is he supposed to do with the money but put it in the Treasury? Who does it belong to if not the US? Surely not Donald Trump.
Is the President an "official of the government?" What do you think Madison, or any other sane person, would say?
And if he is collecting money on behalf of the US he certainly is an agent. Notice that the passage Blackman quotes says,
"(f) When authorized by the Secretary [of the Treasury], an official or agent of the Government having custody or possession of public money, or performing other fiscal agent services, may be allowed necessary expenses to collect, keep, transfer, and pay out public money and to perform those services."
IOW, the authorization requirement refers only to reimbursement of expenses. Presumably the President has funds available for carrying out normal administrative functions, and, unlike a civil servant, would not have to spend personal funds for this job.
Does Blackman think Trump can just keep the money for himself
Yes.
Absolutely. It's a bedrock principle of Blackmanism that President Trump can do whatever he wants: no law governs him unless he wants it to. (P.S. Democrats, this principle doesn't apply to you. Maybe not even to another Republican. Mostly just Trump.)
Wait a minute. Are you trying to tell me President Newsom won't be able to tell foreign leaders 'give me $X billion or I'll send the SEALS to arrest you' and then spend the money however he sees fit?
Yes, Blackman's theory is that it's ok for Trump to take Venezuelan oil revenues and place them in his personal account to be spent at his discretion because Jefferson did something not very similar with horses. Also maybe there's no law flatly forbidding our president from turning foreign policy into his own cash kitty.
Seems kind of a flaw in the Constitution really. Somebody should do something about it.
And yet again it should be noted that the Clear Statement rule is nowhere to be found in the Constitution nor justified in the Federalist Papers, yet Josh seems remarkably comfortable with it.
Will Trump personally have custody of the disputed funds? If I hand him a suitcase full of cash Blackman's argument might work. If I hand his Chief of Staff a suitcase full of cash the money is in custody of an official or agent.
Does anything from Congress or the Judiciary ever bind the President?
The super-duper clear statement rule says 'no.'
[offer may not be valid for other Presidents.]
In The Least Surprising Statement of the Year contest, All Topics division, Josh's position is:
But hey, the year is young! I'm sure he'll be able to top this.
This law clearly applies to the president because 1) it does not exclude the president and 2), this law is an implementation of parts of the Constitution the president is already bound by.
The thing that confuses me about such assertions (the president is not covered by this or that act, because of the separation of powers), is why anyone thinks the president has inherent authority to do anything, absent any law. I realize that is much of MAGA's latest argument (which much like pre-MAGA during the Obama years they rightly abhorred) they will regret after Trump.
It's not this one simple trick that the president can order a subordinate to do whatever he wants done, absent any authorization in law. Even if the Miscellaneous Receipt Act doesn't apply to him personally, it does to others. No president is personally capable of doing this alone. He would have to somehow utilize the machinery of government. It's one thing to say that a federal court can't order the president personally to do anything. Or that federal law restrictions like the Hatch Act cannot apply to the presidency or vice presidency. It's quite another to say that the president can claim control of foreign funds and use them as he pleases. It's like an acid trip replay of Iran-Contra.
My previous comment from Josh and Seth's post arguing the President wasn't subject to the Posse Comitatus Act.
....
The legislative debates in the House, where the amendment was introduced to add the "The Posse Comitatus Act" language to the Army Appropriations Bill, largely centers on the President.
J. Proctor Knott (D-KY), who introduced the amendment in its original form, stated: "The amendment I propose is comprehensive. It reaches from the Commander-in-Chief down to the lowest officer in the Army who may presume to take upon himself to decide when he shall use the military force in violation of the law of the land. It is not only the Executive who has been guilty of using troops under circumstances not authorized by law, but officers of various grades. And it is to prevent a recurrence of this usurpation of authority by any grade of officers that this amendment is proposed. It is not a party question. It is a question that rises above party. It is a question that addresses itself to conservative men, whether upon the other side of the House or this."
So, the people in Congress who voted on the amendment were certainly on notice that its language applied to the President. They even engaged in debates over the affect this would have on the President's powers.
If someone receives money for the government and takes it for personal use, isn't that called "embezzlement"?
Based solely on the bit of law quoted it looks easy enough to get round without worrying about whether it applies to the President.
If you’re President Newsom you can sell the Venezuelan oil to US oil companies and instruct them to transfer the money to such lefty activist groups as are useful in getting the vote out or whatever cause appeals to President Newsom. No government agent or official ever receives the money. Both the oil company and the activist group are principals not agents, the one buying oil, the other receiving a donation from the oil company to spend on la lutta.
And if you’re President Trump you tell the oil company to pay in stock, or border wall, or ballrooms. No cash no foul.
Obviously if this was about tax the courts would look through the shenanigans or invent a hidden “or moneys worth” principle. But this ain’t tax.