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Sinking And Floating Liquidation
Continuing the debate over liquidation from Bruen to Slaughter.
Much of the debate about the removal power focuses on practice after the Constitution was adopted. Of course, there is the so-called Decision of 1789. There is also the Decision of 1790, which created the Sinking Fund Commission. However, in the immediate years after the framing, the Decision of 1789 seemed to take hold. Fast-forward one hundred years, and there was the Decision of 1887, which created the Interstate Commerce Commission (ICC). As the Progressive Era unfolded, Congress began to create more multi-member commissions with removal protections. Myers v. United States found that the President had the absolute power to remove a single executive branch officer, but Humphrey's Executor upheld tenure protections for FTC commissioners.
How should a court make sense of these competing traditions? For the first century, after ratification the Decision of 1789 seemed to suggest the President's removal power could not be restricted. For the second century after ratification, the Decision of 1887 seemed to suggest that the President's removal power could be restricted. But in the past two decades, the 1887 settlement has been eroded, and we are moving closer to the Decision of 1789.
During oral argument in Slaughter v. Trump, Justice Barrett offered a careful consideration of this chronology.
Barrett acknowledged that recent historical work "shows that independent agencies has a longer pedigree than maybe some thought originally." But she maintained that the Sinking Fund Commission did not really establish a precedent for statutory removal restrictions. It was true that the Vice President and Chief Justice were appointed to the Commission by statute, and the President could not remove them. But the President could remove the other three members of the commission: the Secretary of State, the Secretary of the Treasury, and the Attorney General. Thus, the President could control a majority of the Commission. And in reality, Washington likely expected Alexander Hamilton to make all of the important decisions. Indeed that is exactly what would happen, so Washington had no need to fire anyone. Moreover, the Sinking Fund Commission, as well as the Revolutionary War Debt Commission, had "very, very limited authority."
Justice Barrett asked Amit Argawal, counsel for Slaughter, to "assume, that I disagree with you about the history." When Justice Barrett asks counsel to "assume" something, you know what she believes. Rather, Barrett said, the first "statutory removal restriction, like the inefficiency, neglect, malfeasance [standard] appeared in the 1887 with the ICC."
Justice Barrett then turned to the topic of liquidation:
But let's say that I think the liquidation argument throughout the 19th century shows that, by the time of the end of the 19th century, up until you get to the ICC, and the emergence of what starts to look like the more modern independent agency, that the government has the better of the argument.
But let's say that in 1887 after the ICC and then after the FTC and then after Humphrey's when there was more the explosion of independent agencies, that --let's just assume, again for this purpose, that at that point, yes, you do have precedents like Humphrey's. Humphrey's clearly is --is, you know, a good case for you. Do you still lose? If I say as of 1887, it was liquidated, it was settled, but then we did have cases and congressional practices that veered from that unbroken law. . . .
But, counsel, if it had the first --I mean, in --in the --the assumptions that I've asked you to make, it was liquidated as of 1887. So you think liquidation can kind of get a new restart, like kick-start in 1887?
In short can a liquidated practice become unliquidated? Or to use the imagery of the day, can liquidation sink and later float?
Here, I think a useful precedent to consider is Bruen. Leading up to the Reconstruction Era, the notion of an individual right to keep and bear arms had crystalized. And even if there was not a strong enough case based on original meaning, that right had been liquidated through practice. However, after Reconstruction, that settlement was altered. Jim Crow regimes enacted discriminatory gun control laws. Territories in the Wild West enacted gun free zones. And by the start of the twentieth century, governments enacted handgun carry bans. Indeed, the Sullivan Law from New York was on the books for more than a century by the time Bruen was decided.
In Bruen, Justice Thomas dismissed the relevance of the Jim Crow laws, as well as the laws from the Wild West. But there is some resemblance between the chronology of the Second Amendment and the chronology that Justice Barrett described in Slaughter. The line can be drawn roughly before and after the Progressive Era---when so much of the Constitution was damaged. Was the Second Amendment a case of liquidation followed by unliquidation? Did a liquidated right to bear arms float before the Civil War and sink after the Civil War? And how should courts consider these competing streams of authority?
In Bruen, Justice Barrett expressed concerns about liquidation in her concurrence:
I join the Court's opinion in full. I write separately to highlight two methodological points that the Court does not resolve. First, the Court does not conclusively determine the manner and circumstances in which postratification practice may bear on the original meaning of the Constitution. Scholars have proposed competing and potentially conflicting frameworks for this analysis, including liquidation, tradition, and precedent.
Barrett raised some questions:
To name just a few unsettled questions: How long after ratification may subsequent practice illuminate original public meaning? Cf. McCulloch v. Maryland (1819) (citing practice "introduced at a very early period of our history"). What form must practice take to carry weight in constitutional analysis? See Myers v. United States (1926) (citing a "legislative exposition of the Constitution . . . acquiesced in for a long term of years"). And may practice settle the meaning of individual rights as well as structural provisions? See Baude, Constitutional Liquidation, 71 Stan. L. Rev. 1 (2019) (canvassing arguments). The historical inquiry presented in this case does not require us to answer such questions, which might make a difference in another case.
The last sentence is key. In Bruen, the liquidation question did not make a difference. But in Slaughter it will.
In the Emoluments Clauses litigation, Seth Barrett Tillman and I discussed the methodology to consider post-ratification history. I wrote about our approach in an essay for the South Texas Law Review, titled Defiance and Surrender. Here is an excerpt:
President Washington and other Founders who were his successors during the Early Republic openly received, accepted, and kept diplomatic gifts and other gifts from foreign governments and their officials without seeking or receiving congressional consent. These early presidents acted as if they were not bound by the Foreign Emoluments Clause.5 However, Presidents Jackson, Tyler, Van Buren, and Lincoln declined to personally accept foreign gifts. These later presidents, other scholars contend, acted as if they were bound the Foreign Emoluments Clause. Courts might take the intuitive position that because all presidents have equal authority, the latter presidents ought to be preferred. The Supreme Court has taught a different lesson: modern practice does not automatically overcome earlier precedents. There is an additional principle that informs this inquiry. When considering competing streams of historical practice by the three branches, courts favor purported defiance over voluntary surrender. Disputed assertions of power by Washington and his successors in the Early Republic are more probative about the scope of the Foreign Emoluments Clause than voluntary acquiescence by Jackson and post-Jackson presidencies.
The question presented in Slaughter is whether Congress can restrict the President's removal power. With the Decision of 1789, President Washington took no actual action. But the Vice President John Adams, as President of the Senate, broke the tie, and voted against the statute. Thus, it was Congress that rejected the bill with the tenure protections, albeit with the help of the Vice President. As a body, Congress abnegated, or defied its own purported authority to restrict the President's removal power. Stated differently, Congress voluntarily surrendered to the President's removal power. In the separation of powers, whether there is defiance of surrender depends on your point of view: when one branch defies, the other will usually surrender. Defiance v. defiance is rare.
One century later, with the Decision of 1887, the dynamics were flipped. Congress defied the President's claim to an absolute removal power. And the President, by signing the ICC bill, surrendered to Congress's asserted power to restrict the removal power. Moreover, every subsequent President until Franklin D. Roosevelt surrendered to Congress's power by not firing commissioners without cause. Roosevelt attempted to defy Congress by firing William Humphrey, but the Supreme Court rejected Roosevelt's defiance. And from FDR to Biden, no President tried to test that settlement. Trump, by firing Slaughter, has once again tried to defy Congress--and unlike FDR, DJT will likely prevail.
In my view, the earlier precedents demonstrating defiance would prevail over later precedents demonstrating acquiescence. Or, to use Justice Barrett's framing, the earlier liquidation cannot become unliquidated.
Solicitor General Sauer addressed responded to Justice Barrett during his rebuttal:
Justice Barrett, regarding the question of historical liquidation, we think the case that you ought to look at is Powell against McCormack. It's very analogous to the sort of historical --what happened in the history here. In that case, Congress, from the time of the Founding until reconstruction, Congress after the Civil War, had interpreted the Constitution to not allow it to refuse to seat a member of Congress other than from the reasons that are set forth explicitly in the Constitution, the Qualifications Clause. The reconstruction Congress changed that and decided not to seat a couple of former members who had too close ties to the Confederacy. And after that, for the next 100 years or so, Congress then started exercising that power, not --not often, but intermittently, to refuse to seat other members.
And this Court said in Powell against McCormack what is decisive there in that board of constitutional interpretation is the liquidation that occurred in --in the 19th century, not the subsequent, again, very lengthy tenure of practice of Congress refusing to do that, and, therefore, it --it held that Congress lacked the power to refuse to seat the Congressman in that case. I mean, that's very, very compelling here.
I think the framework from Powell, as well as Bruen should control. The earlier-in-time precedents, which demonstrate defiance of Congress's power, should control over later-in-time precedents where President's acquiesced to Congress's power.
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In other words, they make it up as they go along to get whatever result is en courant.
This article really highlights how historical precedents and modern interpretations can clash in unexpected ways. I found the discussion about liquidation and unliquidation particularly interesting, as it shows how legal authority can shift over time depending on context and defiance versus acquiescence. It makes me think about how even complex systems need ways to reset or adapt, similar to how you might occasionally want to step back and try something completely different to see what works. On a lighter note, sometimes you just need a quick mental break to refresh your perspective, and I recently stumbled upon this fun site where you can https://onga.io/ it’s a nice way to reset and come back to heavy topics with a clearer mind.
"Liquidation" is just what you call it when an originalist gives up on winning on a particular issue, and rather than admitting he has lost, and that an illegitimate interpretation is in place and isn't going away, rationalizes that it's actually legitimate.
Because it's extremely uncomfortable to realize that your legal system incorporates a lie, and that lie isn't going away.
So, yes, sometimes people give up, and later realize that they didn't have to, and resume fighting.
"In Bruen, Justice Thomas dismissed the relevance of the Jim Crow laws, as well as the laws from the Wild West."
And, properly so. Should the Brown Court have "liquidated" Jim Crow, and ruled that, screw the 14th amendment, segregation and officially mandated discrimination were constitutionally legitimate?
Fight this urge to pretend that a state of affairs contrary to the Constitution's meaning is actually legitimate. That's not any part of originalism, it's originalism's foe, living constitutionalism.
BrettLaw hardest hit.
How about instead of being a catty douche, for once, you actually address his point.
I don't think he actually can, and anyway, Thomas would be surprised to learn that he was practicing "BrettLaw" when he wrote Bruen.
The simple fact of the matter is that most of the gun laws that gun controllers claim support the constitutionality of gun control actually WERE Jim Crow laws. An incontrovertible fact.
That the gun control advocates later decided that they wanted to abridge everybody's rights, not just the rights of minorities, doesn't change that.
You haven't read the Baude article, which makes the originalist case going back to Madison.
No, you've decided liquidation is bad and thus anyone who talks about it is doing so in bad faith because they seek to cover up how they secretly agree with BrettLaw.
Yes, lots of gun control laws were passed with racist intent. Not sure how that changes any legal read.
That the gun control advocates later decided that they wanted to abridge everybody's rights
Telepathy: A vital ingredient in any BrettLaw analysis.
You're incapable of thinking people are wrong without deciding they have some hidden evil motive. It's a terrible way to exist in a republic.
I realize that you label everything from simple reasoning, to not having the attention span of a gerbil with ADHD, to the basic ability to parse English sentences, "telepathy", but this is getting ridiculous.
It is simply an historical fact that the first laws in America that looked like modern gun control laws were Jim Crow laws, intended to be selectively enforced against minorities. You might not like to acknowledge that, but it's still true: Gun control laws started showing up after Reconstruction faltered for a reason.
So, what is deciding to enforce them less selectively, if not a decision to infringe everybody's rights, instead of just the rights of minorities?
Ever notice that you simply reason into bad faith in every institution and every liberal?
As to "you might not like to acknowledge" I'd point you to my third paragraph above, which is me acknowledging.
what is deciding to enforce them less selectively, if not a decision to infringe everybody's rights
What terrible logic! A law illegal due to EPC can be legal when broadly applied.
Would you claim that because it's impermissible to close the Museum of American History to only black people on Mondays, that means closing it to everyone on Mondays would be illegal?
One Simple Trick to make a decision to infringe everybody's rights go away: Just declare that a right explicitly enumerated in the Bill of Rights isn't a right.
Yes, I'm aware that you think ever Justice other than Thomas secretly agrees with you but hates the right to keep and bear arms and thus lies about it.
That's why no one takes you seriously on this stuff.
I'm not bothering to read Baude's article right now, but I just wanted to note the following (since we are discussing the Second Amendment)-
Pre-dating the Constitution, and since the Constitution, localities and states had numerous laws that affected guns.
It is certainly true that some of those laws were motivated by reasons that we would consider anathema today, especially in terms of "full bans." These were motivated by such reasons as animus and racism (anti-Catholic, anti-black, etc.). But they show that guns were considered an object that states and localities could regulate.
But there's more. There were licensing regimes. There were laws on concealed and open carry. There were laws restricting guns based on location. There were laws that requires guns to be "surrendered" or "checked" in for areas. There were laws restricting carrying firearms to certain times.
And so on. And yet, these get to be ignored. Why is this important? Because SCOTUS always elides the difference in how things work. The first real federal regulations of guns didn't occur until the 20th century. But state and local regulations have a long, long, long history.
TIMING IS IMPORTANT. Let's examine why-
The Second Amendment was ratified in 1791.
The 14th Amendment was ratified in 1868.
If Brett was not so results-oriented, he would see the issue. The ratifiers of the 14th Amendment, if they were incorporating the Second Amendment, were ratifying the Second Amendment as they viewed it in ... 1868. How the people who were incorporating the Second Amendment believed it operated in 1868 should be the operative test when you apply it to states and localities.
If you believe in originalism.
OK, first of all, you're enormously exaggerating the extent of pre-BOR gun regulation. You really are.
Second, you're trying to level the whole country down to the occasional outliers of history. The BOR and 14th amendment were intended to level rights UP, not down.
First of all, I am not exaggerating the extent of them- although I include PRE-INCORPORATION. Because that's really the salient time period.
Prior to that, I could point to other laws that would be even harder to disentangle. For example, we could use the one from Massachusetts Bay Colony, which twinned the requirement of gun ownership with the requirement of participating in ... yep, a militia. But I was trying to simplify for you. Wouldn't want to bring in the militia issue.*
Second, I think you are the one who misunderstands. The point of the Constitution is that is supposed to be floor, not a ceiling- and there is no evidence that the framers of the 14th Amendment were thinking, "Hey, you know what? We are going to prevent all states and localities from having the gun regulations that we know about. Because some dude 150 years from now knows us better than we do. Also, we won't leave a record of us agreeing with him."
*FWIW, as a pure matter of interpretation, I always found Amar's argument that the Second Amendment as originally written was, in fact, directed toward the militia because THAT'S WHAT PEOPLE AT THE TIME WERE THINKING, but the conception of it changed so that by the time of the 14th Amendment incorporation, people generally did view it as an individual right. But this type of thinking actually requires nuance and paying attention to the fact that people truly thought differently than we do back in history, instead of reading our personal policy preference back into the minds of people who thought very differently than we do.
But what do I know? I try to separate descriptive and normative statements of the law, and I'm also not fluent in Brettlaw.
Justice Alito in McDonald v. Chicago noted the changing understandings of the Second Amendment:
By the 1850’s, the perceived threat that had prompted the inclusion of the Second Amendment in the Bill of Rights—the fear that the National Government would disarm the universal militia—had largely faded as a popular concern, but the right to keep and bear arms was highly valued for purposes of self-defense.
An "individual rights view" (labels mislead somewhat since protecting an equal right to belong to a state-organized militia is also an individual right), as an originalist matter, is stronger as to the Fourteenth Amendment.
The Civil War particularly made protecting state militia from federal overreach more suspect. OTOH, an individual right to keep and bear arms was deemed essential to freedom, including the proverbial freeman protecting himself and his family from the Klan.
History has a role in constitutional analysis. But, as you have noted, it is selectively applied. See also the First Amendment and Taking Clause Jurisprudence.
ETA: I found Prof Amar's book on the Bill of Rights from years back fairly convincing on the point, as you basically note without agreeing with him on all the issues.
Ever notice that you simply reason into bad faith in every institution and every liberal?
Ever notice you don't reason at all? Your prior comment shows that.
BrettLaw hardest hit.
A wonderful deep thinker, you are.
"Vice President and Chief Justice were appointed to the Commission by statute, and the President could not remove them. But the President could remove the other three members of the commission:"
interesting coincidence that removal power from the commission mirrors the president's removal power from office. In other words president couldn't remove the Chief Justice or the Vice president from office, but he could remove the Secretary of State Etc.
The Tenure of Office Act, the statute that served as the basis of President Johnson’s impeachment, was passed in 1867.
While President Johnson was not removed, by one vote, this suggests only that a sufficient minority of Congress thought this sort of dispute not a sufficient “crime” to justify removing an elected President. But certainly a majority of both houses of Congress at the time, possibly including some of the Senators who thought the issue insufficient for removal, thought that firing the Secretary of State was illegal and the President had no power to do so without Congress’ consent.
At the time the ICC was created, the view the President had no power to fire anyone if Congress forbade it was the prevalent one.
does it matter what the prevailing view was? Congress repealed the Tenure Act 20 years later, and in Myers v. United States (1926), the Supreme Court stated that the Tenure of Office Act was likely invalid.
I’m asserting that Myers v. United States was wrongly decided and should be overruled. And I’m asserting this on originalist grounds. For that purposse, it matters quite a bit.
Uh huh. Oh sure, the Constitution actually has an amendment process but forget that. If you want to change the document, all we need to do is liquidate and ascertain the new constitutional standard by picking and choosing your favorite Supreme Court precedent. How generous of the judiciary to give us more options.
"Madison expounded the idea of liquidation over the course of his long political life. One of his earliest and most quoted discussions came in his essay Federalist No. 37. Writing as “Publius,” Madison pled that “many allowances ought to be made for the difficulties inherent in the very nature of the undertaking referred to the Convention.”
He went on: “All new laws, though penned with the greatest technical skill, and passed on the fullest and most mature deliberation, are considered as more or less obscure and equivocal, until their meaning be liquidated and ascertained by a series of particular discussions and adjudications.”"
https://review.law.stanford.edu/wp-content/uploads/sites/3/2019/01/Baude-71-Stan.-L.-Rev.-1-2019.pdf
If you claim to be an originalist, you should probably engage with the actual material not just your vibes.
My favorite thing about originalists?
They don't actually take into account how people of the day thought the Constitution should be construed.
My second favorite thing?
When they compare the Constitution to a contract, and then manage to ignore both contract law that is current, as well as contract law from that time.
Use whatever labels you like, the Constitution is not ambiguous on the President's authority in this context. "The executive Power shall be vested in a President of the United States of America." Not really all that much ambiguity there to "liquidate and ascertain," at least if we're referring to the President's power to manage and control subordinate executive branch officials.
Well my sarcastic communist friend, real conservatives are not democrat lemmings blindly following any authority, nor do we (or anyone else I imagine) concede to little communist girls the right to define originalism or any other issue. I am fully aware of Madison's writings. It would actually be more compelling to me if Madison had actually incorporated the "liquidate and ascertain" method of amendment in the text of the Constitution the states actually ratified, instead of the cumbersome old amendment process. Especially since Madison was unaware of the subsequent pretensions and arrogant power grabs of the S. Ct.
But you're not actually interested in a reasonable exchange. You just make obnoxious trolling responses.
I am fully aware of Madison's writings
Who do you think would possibly believe that?
And your paeon to textualism kind of shows you don't even know what originalism is and does.
I could as easily ask why there's no text in the Constitution picking an originalist school and saying that's the way to interpret what it means.
I guess that means originalism isn't real, since it's not in the text!
you're not actually interested in a reasonable exchange
Says the dude who starts his post with 3 lines of invective, followed by a lie.
Responding with more obnoxious insults was probably not the best way to demonstrate your interest in a reasonable exchange. It was, however, the best way to prove you're just an obnoxious troll incapable of arguing anything honestly. So, it should go without saying, this exchange is now concluded.
Yes, it's everyone else who won't have a reasonable conversation with you. That's the problem.
As I see it, the Decision of 1789 decided only that Congress’ authorization wasn’t explicitly required for the President to fire a subordinate. It never decided the very different question of whether the President could fire a suborxinate against Congress’ explicit prohibition. As explained above, I don’t see the Johnson impeachment as establishing that either. Rather, it was clear a large majority of Congress believed the President couldn’t fire a subordinate when Congress prohibited it. The impeachment proceedings only established that a barely sufficient minority thought the matter wasn’t a sufficiently high crime to warrant removal of an elected president - a very different question from whether it was lawful as a matter of civil or administrative rather than criminal law.
Until the Supreme Court decided otherwise well into the 20th Century, it was well established that the President could fire a subordinate unless Congress explicitly provided otherwise, but cannot do so where Congress prohibits it. And although disobeying Congress on this matter is not a sufficiently high crime to warrant removal, Congress’ will on such matters can be enforced, like other statutory provisions regarding administration in cases where the Executive and Congress are in tension, through civil proceedings in Federal court.
Is it your position that Congress can place any restrictions on the President's ability to remove a subordinate? That is ludicrous, and certainly well beyond anything the Court said in Humphrey's Executor.
Could Congress prevent in incoming President from firing the outgoing President's Cabinet (who traditionally all tender their resignations, though there is certainly no legal requirement they do so), even when the outgoing President is of a different party than the incoming President? And if Congress' power is not unlimited, then what are the contours of those limits?
In his first Message to Congress (what we call the State of the Union address today), President Grant called for a repeal of the Tenure of Office Act, arguing that it was unconstitutional, as President Johnson's attorneys had argued during his impeachment trial. They did not come to that conclusion from reading 20th century Supreme Court opinions.
These reducto arguments run up against N&P. If a restriction is not necessary and proper to produce Congresses' desired outcome, then it's not permissible.
Done and done.
I didn't ask your position. Your nonsensical "answer" exhibits the same depth of thought of all your previous posts.
Would "stability and continuity in policy" be a sufficient "desired outcome" to justify any restriction by Congress on the President's removal of Cabinet members?
I mean, I got the idea from Jed Shugerman and Gary Lawson. Be careful with those insults, you might end up looking like the shallow one.
https://blog.dividedargument.com/p/guest-post-a-necessary-and-proper
As to your question, that sounds facts-based to me. Depends on the specific expected scope of the office being stood up.
But what's at some point a tenure of office would no longer be necessary and proper.
Let’s take the Tenure in Office Act example. Its rational basis is very straightforward. The same principles that led Congress to establish a civil service approach to inferior officers with protection from removal would apply equally well to, and be equally rational for, cabinet officers. Giving the President a greater say in policy is merely a political interest to be considered. The President’s only say by constitutional right is in his enumerated powers - the military, pardons, and foreign affairs. Otherwise, he only has such say in domestic affairs as Congress lets him have. Presiding over and being ceremonially vested with the executive branch doesn’t mean he actually gets to control it.
It’s no more ludricous than, for example, allowing black people to vote, which many in the 19th and 20th centuries considered a ludicrous idea. Statements like “that is ludicrous” put your prejudices on display. They show you are offering an emotionally-based reaction, not a reasoned opinion.
Johnson came one vote short of being removed from office for firing a cabinet officer in violation of the Tenure of Office Act, indicating that at the time, a clear majority of both houses of Congress thought Congress had the constitutional power to enact such a prohibition. You can’t dismiss this type of historical precedent by simply claiming it was “ludicrous,” just because it runs contrary to what yiu for your own reasons would like to believe. Of course a President is going to claim he has the power. That’s hardly evidence that he in fact does. And if Congress decides to give the President more discretion, that doesn’t mean it permanently relinquishes the power to retract it.
If a Democrat is elected president in 2028, I do indeed find it "ludicrous" to suggest Congress could require him or her to retain every Trump appointee, including the Trump Cabinet. You, apparently, do not. But I do credit you for answering my question directly. I leave it to others to decide which position is more logically sound.
Your scenario requires the President to be up against an opposing party supermajority of both chambers.
If that's the case, things will get weird in any number of ways.
Though again whether you have a necessary and proper purpose for such restrictions seems the relevant inquiry.
It's weird now, after all.
I am asserting Myers v. United States was wrongly decided. The President’s enumerated Article II powers taken together provide for a President strong in military and foreign affairs and with a pardon power, but relatively weak in domestic matters, a President who merely presides over but does not control the administration of Congress’ domestic policy.
Let me ask you this question. If the idea that Congress has to consent to firing an official is ludicrous, why isn’t the idea Congress has to consent to hiring one ludicrous? I would suggest the current situation is more ludicrous. Under current interpretation, since the President can fire an official but can’t appoint a new one without Congress’ consent, when the President and the Senate are in conflict positions simply sit vacant. If the President needs Congress’ consent to fire an official, such a ludicrous outcome, which makes a complete laughingstock of our government, can’t happen. The existing official stays in place until the President and the Senate agree on a replacement.
It is undisputed that the Constitution does not say the President can fire anyone they want, and that Congress has the power to make the rules and laws for the government.
This entire issue is fabricated by Republicans who want a president-king.
It's undisputed that the Constitution does not actually say a hell of a lot of things the judiciary 'interpret' it as meaning.
For instance, you'll search in vain for that "unless the government has a compelling interest" clause appended to all the articles in the Bill of Rights.
So, if you want the Constitution to be interpreted strictly, literally, I'm totally on board. Man, I am SO on board for that!
But if you want it to be strictly interpreted in some places, and 'liberally' interpreted in others, I'm probably going to disagree with you about which bits are strict, and which bits get ignored.
It's also undisputed that the Framers had a very good understanding of how the judiciary worked, and even sprinkled phrases from Blackstone in the Constitution. As if they knew how a judiciary functioned, and how judges would, and should, act in the system that they set up.
...and the judges did! Weird, huh?
A constitution read literally and only changed by amendment is better than a constitution that changes with the whims of five people.
Welcome to the dark side!
“So, if you want the Constitution to be interpreted strictly, literally, I'm totally on board. Man, I am SO on board for that!”
It’s just that the libs won’t let you be on board for that, isn’t it?
*reads next paragraph*
Yep.
You mean the next paragraph where I state I won't agree with liberals to do something else?
I'd argue that it's a byproduct of '80s Reagan fanboyism (what if Reagan could just do whatever he wanted, wouldn't that be cool?) combined with a truly tendentious reading of Youngstown (not realizing what the actual result was, and basically reading it as, "If Congress doesn't specifically say you can't do something, you can do it, and even if they do, you can do it.").
Unfortunately, the "Unitary Executive" suffers from the twin disfigurements of ignoring the text of the Constitution and ... the entire history of the country (it's almost like we were formed in order NOT to have a unitary executive).
And it makes the biggest mistake of all ... the one that the Framers tried as hard as possible to guard against. The mistake in giving more and more power to one person with the assumption that the person will do "good stuff you like," and is only being prevented from doing that by "rules and checks and, um, balances."
It's almost like ... we set up a system of government designed to frustrate unilateral action, and some people fundamentally do not understand that.
I think there was no set in stone "the Decision of 1789," noting too that "1789" is not when the Constitution was written.
The First Congress split multiple ways on what executive removal power entailed. They carefully crafted legislation to compromise in certain cases. They did not think future legislatures were bound by what they did. They knew ...
It would have been an unwise attempt to provide by immutable rules for exigencies which, if foreseen at all, must have been seen dimly, and which can be best provided for as they occur.
(McCulloch v. Maryland)
One side flagged that The Federalist Papers supported them.
Hamilton said, "Oh, I changed my mind on that point." The Constitution leaves a lot to the political branches to decide over time. The ebb and flow of history (the Tenure of Office Act was, e.g., passed in a certain historical context) has many changes.
As to the parade of horribles, and current events show the Constitution allows many (if not as much as some think), I'd toss in that the Cabinet itself was a development of the Washington Administration. See, The Cabinet: George Washington and the Creation of an American Institution by Lindsay M. Chervinsky.
The idea of a Cabinet predates Washington by quite a bit. The word itself, meaning a council of ministers, seems to have first been used by Francis Bacon in 1605. The Privy Council has origins at least as old as the Norman Conquest, and some sources give Angmendus as the first Lord Chancellor (roughly the equivalent of the Attorney General), appointed by King Ethelbert in the year 605.
My position on presidential removal power is quite simple. Anyone appointed by the President (with the exception of judges, of course) can be removed by the President. This is, of course, the position of Chief Justice Taft and the Court in Myers.
You seem to concede Congress might have some limits in restricting the President's removal power, but are rather vague on what those limits might be, seemingly leaving the determination to the nebulous intuition of judges to say, "too far, Congress".
does it matter what the prevailing view was? Congress repealed the Tenure Act 20 years later, and in Myers v. United States (1926), the Supreme Court stated that the Tenure of Office Act was likely invalid.