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Seemingly Unknown Antebellum Pennsylvania Case Briefly Mentioning the Right to Keep and Bear Arms
I haven't seen it cited anywhere (presumably because it's not on Westlaw or Lexis), and I don't believe I've seen other antebellum case like this from Pennsylvania, either. It's Commonwealth v. Crause, 3 A.L.J. 299, 303 (Pa. Ct. Oyer & Terminer 1846). Crause shot and killed a man who had unjustifiably attacked him; the court ultimately opined that this wasn't justifiable self-defense, because the attack didn't threaten serious harm (not a controversial legal principle at the time):
He [the decedent] had inflicted a blow upon his person. He had made no attempt upon his life. He used no weapon nor had he any weapon about him. There was no apparent danger of loss of life or of great bodily harm. There was no attempted felony upon his person, nor was there any threatened. The deceased was caught by one of the persons present. Those present in the house had interposed to prevent further violence upon the person of the prisoner. Where then was the necessity, this urgent necessity to take his life? The necessity must be a necessity founded in his own safety. It did not exist.
But the court also made opined that the defendant's being armed didn't by itself show that he was guilty of "willful, deliberate and premeditated" (and therefore first-degree) murder, partly based on the right to bear arms:
There is no proof that the prisoner was at this place to seek this quarrel, or that he did seek it. There is no proof that he was there to afford the deceased an opportunity to begin this quarrel with him, so that he might have an excuse for taking revenge upon him.
He had this weapon upon his person, it is true. It was heavily charged. But the citizens of this Commonwealth have a right to bear arms "in defence of themselves." This right is a constitutional right, and one which, "shall not be questioned."
Therefore, taking the act done, and all the circumstances which attended it, was the killing wilful, deliberate and premeditated? If it was not, the prisoner is not guilty of murder of the first degree. If it was, then he is guilty of murder of the first degree.
The author of the opinion was Judge John Banks, who was apparently a moderately prominent Pennsylvania official of the time: He had run for Governor in 1841 (getting 45% of the vote) and in 1847 became Pennsylvania Treasurer.
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The deceased was caught by one of the persons present. Those present in the house had interposed to prevent further violence upon the person of the prisoner. Where then was the necessity, this urgent necessity to take his life? The necessity must be a necessity founded in his own safety. It did not exist.
I gather the deceased hit the killer, others in the house prevented any further attack, and the assault victim shot him anyway. It implies that there was enough time for others to intervene, and hints that the deceased was not in imminent danger of breaking loose and continuing the assault.
Other than in hoplophobe cities like NYC, and ignoring all the unknowns, is this much different from the same reasoning today? This passage seems to imply there was no possibility of guilty for a lesser charge, only first degree murder or not.
Therefore, taking the act done, and all the circumstances which attended it, was the killing wilful, deliberate and premeditated? If it was not, the prisoner is not guilty of murder of the first degree. If it was, then he is guilty of murder of the first degree.
My issue is that the judge seem to say that a punch was no big deal because it is not life threatening. It certainly can be. I don't think I should have to take a beating in order to keep from shooting someone.
It also ignores the fact that if someone disables you while you are carrying, then that person can take your gun and then shoot you.
My issue is that the judge seem to say that a punch was no big deal because it is not life threatening. It certainly can be. I don't think I should have to take a beating in order to keep from shooting someone
It can be life threatening. There was an extradition case in Michigan a long time ago. A guy punched another guy, who fell back and smashed his head, and ended up in the hospital brain damaged. The puncher did his time, was released, and moved to Michigan and made a life for himself, including raising two kids.
Meanwhile, after a couple of decades, the guy died of complications, so the original state upgraded it to murder. That wasn't the legal issue, though. They tried to extradite the guy back to the other state, and MI refused. The court ended up ruling a state could not refuse extradition.
I dunno. Is extradition between the states an anachronistic formality or does it really exist as a power states maintain? Apparently the former.
Extradition is not an "anachronistic formality". If I am a state governor and I become aware that a criminal wanted in my state is living in Michigan, I can't just send my police there to seize him and bring him to Florida. My police have no authority there. I must instead ask the governor of Michigan to have her police arrest him and hand him over to mine. So it's an important recognition of state sovereignty.
But that does not mean the governor of Michigan is free to ignore my request. The constitution requires him to comply with it.
"a punch was no big deal because it is not life threatening"
There are surely cases of one punch fatalities.
But historically, I think, fisticuffs were viewed differently than today. I'm an ancient geezer, but I recall an elementary school teacher telling two boys 'take it outside and no hitting below the belt'. Today's society views almost any violence as unacceptable, but I think in bygone days a fistfight (or earlier, a duel!) were accepted means of settling disputes. Whereas using a knife or gun or sword was (apart from duels!) not OK.
I've read an account from pre-automobile NYC where a wagon driver was abusing his ailing horse, and a gentleman remonstrated by whacking the carter with a riding crop, to general approval. Beyond the pale today, but commendable back then.
But IFFF, as appears to be the case here, the punch was the only assault because others prevented further assault, the immediate threat was over and there was no more justification for shooting him.
WVattorney, as far as I know in every jurisdiction lethal force is only justified in defending yourself against a threat of death or serious injury, not a mere blow. If the defendant in this case had been seriously concerned that if he didn't shoot the guy he would be killed or seriously injured, then he'd have been justified. But in this case the guy hit him, and was then restrained. There was no reason for him to be concerned that he would be killed or seriously injured. So he had no right to shoot him.
I would suggest however that the definition of “serious” or “great bodily injury has broadened in recent years, at least in some states to include broken bones.
I just noticed this difference.
This right is a constitutional right, and one which, "shall not be questioned."
Must be what the 1847 PA constitution had, instead of the US "shall not be infringed", since this was before incorporation of the Second Amendment. Does that make much difference trying to use this old case today?
(If I don't say I realize it's a state trial court and not a federal appeals court, some lawyer's going to say so, as if it were the greatest revelation in the history of Volokh comments.)
Quite right. From Article IX of the 1838 Pennsylvania Constitution:
No doubt lawyers today would be arguing the differences between "questioned" and "infringed" and trace the root of each back to Norman French or Latin.
IMHO, analyzing the differences is a form of false precision. I don't think that the drafters meant anything different from one to another; just a stylistic and rhetorical choice.
I was thinking more that modern weaselry would focus on this:
The right of the citizens to bear arms, in defence of themselves and the State, shall not be questioned.
"We've got defense of you and the state well in hand, therefore this issue is a nullity. No guns for you!"
...OR, defense of the State is invariably done with martial arms, therefore, the typical small arms of the infantryman is a civil right of the citizen.
The notion that the exercise of a constitutional right is not evidence of a culpable mental state would not fly today.
Recall the case of Dylann Roof, who was convicted in federal court of all 33 federal charges (including hate crimes) against him and sentenced to death stemming from his shooting up a black church gathering in 2015. Wikipedia reports:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dylann_Roof [footnotes omitted.]
Roof's right to compose that screed and maintain that website was free expression protected by the First Amendment. That expression, however, is also powerful evidence of premeditation and motive.
That's a strawman. The court said nothing of the sort in the case above.
Yes, a racist screed may well be protected by the 1A but nevertheless be evidence of motivation in a murder case. Merely carrying a weapon in accordance with your 2A rights, however, provides no such evidence of motivation.
And that is exactly what the state tried to argue in the case above - that merely carrying the weapon was affirmative evidence of intent to use it illegally. That wasn't true then and isn't true now.
Premeditation refers simply to the defendant's prior intention to kill before the act is carried out. It doesn't require a lengthy period of planning; the intent can form in an instant. However, it must precede the act and be a conscious decision to commit the murder.
Decisions indicating that use of a deadly weapon against an unarmed victim can evince premeditation are myriad. E.g., State v. Brown, 836 S.W.2d 530, 542 (1992), citing C. Torcia, Wharton's Criminal Law § 140 (14th ed. 1979). It would be ridiculous to suggest that carrying a garrote fashioned from a rope can be regarded as evidence of premeditation, but arming oneself and carrying a loaded handgun cannot be.
re: "the intent can form in an instant"
No, it can't. Your definition would erase the distinction between premeditated and ever other kind of murder except accidental killings - which is not generally murder, it's manslaughter. Jurisdiction-specific, of course.
And as you point out at the end, "carrying a loaded handgun cannot be" - which is precisely the scenario in the case cited in the article above.
As Governor Al Smith said, no matter how thin you slice it, it's still baloney.
Someone who carries a loaded handgun may be preparing to kill another person if the circumstances under which he deems it justified present themselves.
Such a fatal shooting may or may not be murder, but going forearmed is definitely evidence of anticipating -- that is, premeditating -- the occasion for use of the gun. It may be strong evidence, or it may be weak evidence, but that is a question for twelve men and women of a jury.
Disagree. A surprisingly high number (including yours truly) of citizens in this country go forth armed every day. Mostly, they do it just in case something untoward happens that day, with no thought of specific threats or intent.
Where we spend half the year in rural MT, pocket guns are common, and truck guns nearly ubiquitous. Wife just started the Yellowstone series, and the opening scene is of Kevin Costner using his six gun to kill his horse, which was injured in a crash with an oversized trailer. The driver of the rig also died, but his priority was his horse. Of course, in real life, it’s more likely that he would be carrying an upscale 1911, than a six gun… Like Tom Selleck in Las Vegas. You do see revolvers - just not that many anymore. In any case, the necessity of the mercy killing of wildlife and domestic animals is more likely, in rural America, than dealing with violent two legged predators. And hence why truck guns (that in most cases count as concealed) are ubiquitous.
The apples to apples comparison would be if the judge in the Roof case instructed the jury: "Merely because the Defendant is a white supremacist and advocates for neo-Nazism does not, by itself, mean that he is guilty of murder"
That attacks that don't threaten serious harm do not justify lethal force is not exactly a controversial legal principle today either.
I cannot comment on the law of self-defense when and where I grew up in the 1950s. I can remember the community expectations of the law. They were that if someone shot and killed another person who was not armed with a deadly weapon, the shooter should always be tried to let a jury decide if it was a criminal killing. The notion of shooting someone for striking with a fist was regarded as nonsense. Fights with fists were judged routine.
Things have changed. In the late 19th Century, into the early 20th Century, Saturday night brawls were apparently routine in many places. In the 1930s, my wife’s maternal grandfather would fight for money to put food on the table. He often came home beaten pretty badly. And into the mid 1950s, her father would often get into fights, just to fight (earlier, he had been the NV Golden Gloves light heavyweight champion). Her mother put an end to his fighting, after she went into pemature labor with her older sister.