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Would Graham Linehan's "If All Else Fails, Punch Him in the Balls" Be Protected Under U.S. Law?
Irish writer Graham Linehan has reportedly been arrested on his return to the U.K., in part apparently based on this Tweet that he had posted:
I don't know whether this is indeed punishable under English law; I have a hard enough time keeping track of the law of one country. But someone asked me whether this would be punishable even under U.S. law, so I thought I'd post about it.
[1.] The incitement exception to the First Amendment wouldn't apply here. Consider Hess v. Indiana, a 1973 Supreme Court case, where Hess was prosecuted for saying, as a demonstration that had blocked the street was being cleared, "We'll take the fucking street later" or "We'll take the fucking street again." The Court reversed the conviction, applying (and elaborating on) the famous Brandenburg v. Ohio (1969) precedent (emphasis added):
The Indiana Supreme Court placed primary reliance on the trial court's finding that Hess' statement "was intended to incite further lawless action on the part of the crowd in the vicinity of appellant and was likely to produce such action." At best, however, the statement could be taken as counsel for present moderation; at worst, it amounted to nothing more than advocacy of illegal action at some indefinite future time. This is not sufficient to permit the State to punish Hess' speech.
Under our decisions, "the constitutional guarantees of free speech and free press do not permit a State to forbid or proscribe advocacy of the use of force or of law violation except where such advocacy is directed to inciting or producing imminent lawless action and is likely to incite or produce such action." Brandenburg. Since the uncontroverted evidence showed that Hess' statement was not directed to any person or group of persons, cannot be said that he was advocating, in the normal sense, any action. And since there was no evidence, or rational inference from the import of the language, that his words were intended to produce, and likely to produce, imminent disorder, those words could not be punished by the State on the ground that they had "a 'tendency to lead to violence.'"
The Tweet likewise appears to be "at worst, … nothing more than advocacy of illegal action at some indefinite future time," and it wasn't "intended to produce, and likely to produce imminent disorder."
This, by the way, is why statements such as "punch a Nazi," "snitches get stitches," T-shirts with a rifle (with or without Malcolm X) and the phrase "by any means necessary," and the like are generally constitutionally protected (absent advocacy of imminent violence or, as item 2 suggests, a specific target).
[2.] U.S. law has also, since Brandenburg and Hess, recognized a solicitation exception (the leading cases are U.S. v. Williams (2008) and U.S. v. Hansen (2023)). The Court wasn't clear what the exact scope of the exception was, but it appears to apply to speech intended to produce "specific conduct," as opposed to "abstract advocacy." The solicitation exception differs from the incitement exception in that it seems to lack an imminence requirement, but applies only to such advocacy of something specific, such as a transaction as to specific contraband or, I would think, an attack on a specific person.
I think that, under that exception, a Tweet saying "You should punch trans activist Pat Jones in the balls if you ever come across him" would likely be solicitation even in the absence of imminence (at least so long as Tweet is reasonably understood as serious rather than a joke or hyperbole). But here the advocacy appears not to target any particular person.
[3.] I also don't think this would be punishable under the "true threats" exception to the First Amendment. To be an unprotected true threat, (1) the speech has to be reasonably interpretable as a statement that says the speaker (or his confederates) themselves plan to do something (as opposed to a statement that urges others to do something) and (2) the speaker must have "consciously disregarded a substantial risk that his communications would be viewed as threatening violence," see Counterman v. Colorado (2023). I don't think this is the situation here. see, e.g., U.S. v. Bagdasarian (9th Cir. 2011).
[4.] Ken White says that the Tweet is "within shouting distance of prosecutable in the U.S." ("[t]he relevant question is whether it is sufficiently imminent to meet our incitement standard") and "would very plausibly get charged in the U.S." (though "it's not clear the prosecution would succeed"). Maybe; it's hard to know for sure, since charging decisions are made by tens of thousands of prosecutors throughout the country, and different prosecutors might interpret the precedents differently (or might not even be fully aware of Hess, even if they know about the less specific but more famous Brandenburg).
But if the question is whether, under modern First Amendment precedents, the Tweet would have been constitutionally protected in U.S. courts, I think the answer is yes.
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To the extent this would indeed be unprotected, wouldn't it be more incitement than solicitation? I'd have thought an improper solicitation would be more like "I'll pay the legal fees of anyone who punches Pat Jones in the balls."
As I read Williams and Hansen -- and the criminal solicitation cases that they generally seem to endorse -- a solicitation can happen even without an offer of benefit. To quote Hansen, "Criminal solicitation is the intentional encouragement of an unlawful act" (though limited to "[s]peech intended to bring about a particular unlawful act" rather than, as Williams put it, "abstract advocacy"). Cf. Giboney, which Hansen endorsed as a proto-solicitation case.
I see what you are saying ... it has been 30+ years since I took Crim Law -- yikes.
You give Ken White WAY too much credit; his tweet or bleet or whatever they're calling it over on Bluesky is embarrassingly inaccurate and would justify arresting Ken White for multiple statements he himself made over the years. His position boils down to if we ignore well settled and established constitution law, someone somewhere could arrest him, which is true for any statement and true about Trumps flag burning nonsense.
"I think that, under that exception, a Tweet saying "You should punch trans activist Pat Jones in the balls if you ever come across him" would likely be solicitation even in the absence of imminence (at least so long as Tweet is reasonably understood as serious rather than a joke or hyperbole). But here the advocacy appears not to target any particular person."
Couldn't any general advocacy of future lawlessness (protected under Brandenburg) be repackaged by an adventurous prosecutor as a solicitation?
I'm also not seeing the distinction between soliciting the ball-kicking of one person versus soliciting the ball kicking of ALL transgender people doing a particular thing.
Or, conversely, if soliciting the ball kicking of no one in particular is okay, that is still less specific than soliciting the ball kicking of all transgender people. Note that in the first instance, no one really has any more reason to fear than anyone else. In the second instance, that is far from true.
I'm a little upset Lathrop, when I posted about this same incident about 10 hours before EV did you said:
"Kazinski, what makes you suppose abysmally low-quality commentary about this nation will persuade anyone to value your commentary about nations elsewhere? Am I supposed to conclude you are better informed about Britain than about the United States?
Am I supposed to conclude that Britain is remiss to the extent that it does not conform itself to your takes on what ought to happen in the United States? What would it take to make you think you ought to withhold an opinion from time-to-time, on the basis of judging yourself ill-informed?"
Why are you giving EV a pass?
Kazinski — Because EV, with whom I often disagree, rarely seems to opine in bad faith, or in a state of self-delusion, as you so often do. I have often seen EV withhold an opinion on the basis of judging himself ill-informed. You? Not so much.
Well why don't you set an example for me then, because your uninformed takes can be absolutely spectacular.
What amazes me most about this is no one mentioning the joke of punching a "woman" in the balls.
Cops are not great at jokes. A certain category of lefties also. Depends on your jury pool I reckon.
I’m also interested in the extraterritoriality angle. Stipulating “Pat Jones” to be a US citizen living in the US, and the speaker does his speaking in the UK, would that be within the jurisdiction of the US courts ? Does it make a difference if X makes the comments readable in the US ?
I bet you don't care about pregnant men, either.
(Yes, the idea of a woman with balls was the crux of the joke, but UK police will not admit that it can even cross their minds as an incongruity. That would be transphobic.)
Ken White has deteriorated into a gibbering idiot over the years. I wouldn’t pay much attention to him.
I can't keep up with all of the labels. Is the person he said to kick in the balls a biological woman?
If so that makes it even more clear that he wasn't soliciting violence.
"Would Graham Linehan's "if All Else Fails, Punch Him in the Balls" Be Protected Under U.S. Law?"
Sadly, it depends on the whim of the DA and/or the judge, not what the law says.
Well until it gets appealed.
I think this is clearly covered by Brandenburg. He was obviously making a joke (he is a comedian). What I find interesting is that the British apparently believe the flag follows the citizen and/or everything put on the Internet is considered to have originated in the UK because they have access to the Internet. The tweets/X-posts were made while Graham Linehan was in the United States, yet the Brits believe they fall within their jurisdiction.
It's an interesting legal question. I we assume that Twitter/X servers are not in the UK, then it could be argued that none of his comments were made in the UK. Anyone in the UK viewing the message would have connected with the remote server and "pulled" that comment into the UK. Arrest them.
I assume (though don't know definitely) that Linehan was charged for an alleged offence or offences proscribed by the Online Safety Act 2023 (UK).
Notwithstanding the common-law presumption against the extra-territorial operation of a statute, that Act (by its s. 185) effectively displaces the presumption by expressly providing that, for the purposes of certain offences, acts "done outside the UK" are caught. The proviso is that the impugned extra-territorial act must have been done by a person "habitually resident" in (relevantly) England and Wales or Northern Island.
Further, sub-section 185(5) deems that, in respect of proceedings for the relevant offences, the applicable "offence" *may* be taken as having been "committed" "at any place in E&W or NI".
As far as I can determine, we have (as yet) no confirmation that L. was charged with an offence of which "incitement" per se is an essential element. The potentially (if barely) applicable OSA "communications offence" is located in s. 181:
181Threatening communications offence
(1)A person commits an offence if—
(a)the person sends a message (see section 182),
(b)the message conveys a threat of death or serious harm, and
(c)at the time of sending it, the person—
(i)intended an individual encountering the message to fear that the threat would be carried out (whether or not by the person sending the message), or
(ii)was reckless as to whether an individual encountering the message would fear that the threat would be carried out (whether or not by the person sending the message).
(2)“Serious harm” means—
(a)serious injury amounting to grievous bodily harm within the meaning of the Offences against the Person Act 1861,
As of now (namely, 07:45 New York time, 9/4), L. hasn't been formally charged with any specific offence (a fact confirmed to me by an English lawyer). Police referenced the Public Order Act, but it's questionable whether it applies.
The question at this moment is thus whether the arrest was a reasonable exercise of the inherent power of arrest.
The fundamental point is that, if L. is formally charged, the legal question will be one of construction of the applicable statute. It's by no means obvious that any charge will involve any question of "incitement".
I'd thus hazard to presume that any question, mutatis mutandis, of US Constitutional hypothetical application, is premature.
Would it be protected by the First Amendment? Absolutely.
Would that prevent the speaker (a non-US citizen) from being arbitrarily arrested, shipped off to a detention facility in Louisiana, and eventually expelled from the country under a future left-wing adminstration, based on the Trump administration's understanding of executive power? Absolutely not.
A future left wing administration? Were you asleep during the Obama and Biden administrations?
For six or seven hours each night, sure. Why, did the Obama or Biden administrations imprison and deport a bunch of people for saying mean things about a foreign country's war while I was napping?