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On the Original Meaning of Birthright Citizenship
My new paper on the original meaning of the citizenship clause of the Fourteenth Amendment
President Trump's executive order adopting a narrow understanding of birthright citizenship in order to exclude the American-born children of unauthorized immigrants and temporary visitors has rekindled a constitutional debate that had mostly been put to bed (my own dissertation advisor was among the earliest scholarly advocates of this narrow understanding). Co-blogger Randy Barnett and his co-author Ilan Wurman have been particularly notable in providing new legal rationales for the administration's position, though they are not alone in doing so.
The first line of the Fourteenth Amendment specifies that "all persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and the state wherein they reside." That is to say, children born in the United States are citizens by right of birth. Or as I title my piece, they are citizens "by birth alone" (borrowing a phrase from a congressional critic of the proposed amendment who thought this was a bad idea). The text builds on an English and American common law tradition, while adding some distinctive language of its own. Both require some unpacking in order to fully understand them.
I have now posted a draft of a new paper on the original meaning of the Fourteenth Amendment's citizenship clause and birthright citizenship in the United States. The paper reaffirms the traditional view that the children born on American soil to alien parents are American citizens except in very narrow circumstances, and that those circumstances would not extend to include the children of illegal aliens. The paper focuses specifically on the common law background to the Fourteenth Amendment debates, the specific political and legal rationale for including this language in the Fourteenth Amendment, and the original meaning of the "subject to the jurisdiction" language. It explains why some particularly notable revisionist accounts of birthright citizenship are wrong as a matter of original meaning.
It is worth noting that there are two important issues with any discussion of the original meaning of the Fourteenth Amendment in this context. There is a question of what principle or rule the Fourteenth Amendment embodies, and then there is a separate question of how that rule should be applied in present circumstances. The drafters of the Fourteenth Amendment were not concerned with temporary visitors or undocumented aliens. Those were not pressing concerns for them, and the modern legal regime of border restrictions did not yet exist. There were no considered, specific original intentions regarding the cases at issue in the Trump executive order and how their principles should be applied to such cases.
An originalist seeking to apply the Fourteenth Amendment to these modern cases must first get the original meaning of the text and its principles right, and then must separately consider how that principle might apply to current circumstances. A non-originalist might not care what the original meaning is, and a living constitutionalist might be willing to depart from known original principles in order to reach a preferred outcome in modern cases. There are further questions about whether a president could unilaterally alter the traditional rule regarding birthright citizenship or whether Congress could do so through its Section V authority.
My paper is not concerned with most of those issues. I just try to get the original meaning of the principles embodied in the text correct since I believe that there are some who have claimed an originalist mantle for an incorrect understanding of those governing principles. In this paper I have nothing to say about any non-originalist moves one might want to make. There are also some tangential concerns that might be relevant to a full originalist analysis to which I might return at some future date, but the paper focuses on what I take to be the core concerns about the original meaning of the idea of birthright citizenship entrenched in the Fourteenth Amendment.
From the conclusion:
Children born under the protection of American law are citizens by virtue of the Fourteenth Amendment, as they were citizens by virtue of the longstanding common-law principles that the Fourteenth Amendment recognized and declared. Aliens within the territory of the United States are subject to and under the protection of American law except in the extraordinary circumstances in which American law cannot reach them or is withheld from them. Unauthorized aliens are not in such an extraordinary circumstance, and their newborn children are certainly not so. Unauthorized aliens within the territory of the United States are subject to the municipal law of the United States – including the law of deportation and removal – and while tolerated within the territory are subject to the protection of that law.
The United States, like any sovereign nation, may choose to discourage or minimize immigration or the presence of aliens within its territory. In addition, it may take steps through public policy to limit the set of people who can naturalize into American citizenship and can take actions to minimize the possibility that aliens will give birth within the United States. Such policy choices may be wise or unwise, difficult or easy to effectuate, but they are available choices within the constitutional order.
The Fourteenth Amendment cut off one particular policy choice, and it was thought necessary to entrench the common-law rule into constitutional text precisely because the desirability of that policy choice had in the mid-nineteenth century become increasingly contested. Chief Justice Taney's opinion in Dred Scott reflected the emerging view of the slave states that the recognition of the citizenship of those born within the country should be dependent on a political assessment of whether some categories of people born within the country were politically desirable and truly deserved to be members of the "governing population." Legislatures should, in that view, be able to determine that some natural-born inhabitants of the country could not be citizens. The Reconstruction Congress decisively and purposefully rejected that emerging view of the law of American citizenship. It left open the question of what privileges and immunities might be entailed by citizenship, but it slammed the door on the idea that the qualifications for natural-born citizenship could be determined by legislatures. That liberal rule of birthright citizenship was controversial in its day, and it has been controversial since, but it is the nature of constitutional entrenchment that subsequent controversy does not alter the original meaning of the rule.
Sometimes the conventional wisdom is simply correct and efforts at revisionist thinking are misguided. To my mind, this is such a case. A living constitutionalist could readily produce a rationale for the Trump administration's position, but I do not think there is a serious originalist case to be made for it.
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I have only read the summary here, but the “subject to the jurisdiction” take suggests that Congress can legislate to make illegal immigrants and their progeny “not subject to the jurisdiction” like diplomats if it so chooses.
Thus the “slamming of the door” on legislatures refusing to accept people as citizens is limited to state legislatures. Not Congress.
These birthright citizens are engaging in immigration fraud. The lawyer wants to flood our nation with Democrat voters to enrich the billionaire owners of the Dem party, to shithole then to destroy America.
Investigate these billionaires for immigration fraud. Try them. Seize their assets in civil forfeiture.
Don’t like billionaires heading up political parties? lol
Why assume immigrants will vote Democratic? Possibly because the Republicans hate all immigrants. That sounds like a Republican problem.
There is no “We dicks to those people and they will vote against us, thus we need to make sure they don’t vote” allowance in the Constitution.
Rube who cherishes billionaire president has ideas. Cute.
"The lawyer wants to flood our nation with Democrat voters to enrich the billionaire owners of the Dem party, to shithole then to destroy America."
Setting aside your misuse of "to shithole" as a verb, Supremacy Claus, how do you claim the ability to predict the voting behavior of newborns at least eighteen years into the future? In politics that is a veritable lifetime.
That opens a good run-around of the 14th Amendment.
While you cannot make a penalty of unlawful immigration the forfeiture of birthright citizenship, as the child never committed "immigration" being a citizen at birth, you can make failure to pay or file taxes for a period of 5 years the forfeiture of citizenship (or constructive renunciation of citizenship).
That would get rid of people like Boris Johnson et al who are citizens but are not really citizens in the de facto sense.
As for birthright citizen children of illegal immigrants, you can give the parents a choice (when deporting), either (a) make their citizen children wards of the state (giving the children the right to stay), or (b) renounce the child's citizenship (giving the child the ability to be deported with the parents). As the guardian of the child I assume they can do that.
Could Congress have declared the children of slaves were not subject to the jurisdiction of the US and deprive them of citizenship?
Why wouldn't they have been able to?
There's probably EP arguments to prevent it, which would also apply to children of illegal aliens, but not as strongly.
Because of the 14th amendment. Duh.
Which part?
So they ratified this right totally subject to a majority vote in Congress? Seems odd.
They also created a section of Idaho were no one can be convicted of a crime. Sometimes people miss things.
Drinking early today, aren’t you?
Your mom likes to bring me a beer after sex.
Is your argument that the 14A couldn't possibly allow Congress to exclude children of freedmen from the jurisdiction of the US because that would defeat the purpose of the amendment, and that that somehow also applies to the children of illegal immigrants?
If so, you should work on a better argument.
You should first try refuting that one.
Sigh. Assuming arguendo that the 14A prevented Congress from removing freedmen from the jurisdiction of the US under a theory that you can ignore constitutional text that would create a loophole that would undermine the amendment, no one has identified a reason to extent that principle to people who aren't freedmen, since that wouldn't undermine the amendment's purpose to extend citizenship to freedmen.
Because the 14A doesn't say anything about "freedmen." It enacts a general birthright citizenship.
" It enacts a general birthright citizenship."
To people who are subject to the jurisdiction of the US at birth. If Congress had removed the children of ex-saves from the jurisdiction of the US, they wouldn't have met the criteria for birthright citizenship.
Congress had no power to do any such thing, no matter how many times you repeated it. Literally the entire purpose of enacting the 14th amendment was to prevent the government from having a say in who became a birthright citizen. (Yes, for the pedants: the government could give that benefit to additional people. But it could not take it away from people.)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zone_of_Death_(Yellowstone)
I assume the person you're responding to is Professor Kalt.
Interesting question. The States certainly could not have by the wording of the 14th A but could the federal Congress? I think the answer is no because the international law of the day would have required them to be the citizens or subjects of someplace else first. That is, you could only 'revoke' someone's citizenship if they had an alternative jurisdiction that they were subject to. The idea of being stateless was not really a thing as I understand it.
I would be happy to be corrected by someone who has studied this more, though.
That would be an interesting approach, but would also mean that basically your only recourse against those immigrants would be to kick them out of the country (as with diplomats). I can't imagine most people who support the idea of getting rid of birthright citizenship would embrace a legal regime in which an "illegal" could murder a bunch of people and face no repercussion other than deportation.
I'd note that there were TWO categories exempt from birthright citizenship here, and only one of them can't be prosecuted.
If you treat them as invading soldiers instead of diplomats, the legal issues become much easier. In all sorts of ways.
The idea behind the "invading armies" thing is the same, though--it's that the US jurisdiction doesn't reach them because they're accountable to the laws of the invading country, not the US (e.g., if Russia occupied Alaska and there were a court-martial of a Russian solider, it would be done using Russian law and not American law).
If at some point soldiers remain in the US after we reclaim Alaska (whether because they are prisoners or otherwise), presumably they become subject to the jurisdiction of the US at that point and their offspring would also be citizens.
Thought experiment: Could an invading army, knowing the peculiarities of our system, bring a bunch of civilians in tow and encourage them to procreate and colonize?
Would those civilians be "subject to the jurisdiction" of the United States? If the answer is yes, that seems artificial. If the answer is no, then can they accomplish the same thing by sending civilians in by subterfuge and wait 20 years to send in the invading army?
Apparently there was a whole body of English law regarding how children of civilians in occupied territory who remained loyal could retain their citizenship.
It doesn't have to do with whether they're civilians per se; it has to do with whether they're living under the occupying foreign military's rule or U.S. rule. If those Russian civilians were living in Russian-occupied Alaska, they would not be subject to the jurisdiction of the U.S. and thus their kids would be not birthright citizens. If those Russian civilians hitched a ride on a Russian troop transport but then just migrated into U.S.-controlled territory, they would indeed be subject to the jurisdiction.
Not if they were all in the occupied territory, since that area wouldn't be subject to the jurisdiction of the US at the time.
How many legs does a dog have if you call its tail a leg, Brett?
5, but you're lying.
Look, I personally think the 14th amendment stupidly makes the children of illegal aliens into citizens, by its best reading, and that we should amend it to fix that. But does that somehow prohibit me from gaming out how you could argue the contrary in court?
It would also be an implicit repeal of all the congressional statutes and federal regulations dealing with alien deportation and removal. If we assume 'jurisdiction' applies in the civil/administrative as well as criminal context. Which I do and I don't think anybody could deny.
Well I may be getting ahead of myself. People who want to deny 'subject to the jurisdiction' to reach a preferred outcome (no birthright citizenship for children of illegal immigrants) have clearly not thought their position all the way through.
It is kinda funny (in a gallows humor way) to see professed originalist writers make what boils down to a consequentialist argument (the words can't mean what they literally say because the policy result is one we don't agree with) with a straight face whilst denying to themselves that this is what they are clearly doing.
They are like abusive parents of the constitution. I only beat you bloody because I love you and want what is best for you.
The US can - like any other country - expel diplomats whose presence is no longer desirable. The diplomats are "subject to the jurisdiction" to that extent, and yet they are not 14A "subject to the jurisdiction." Consequently being able to expel undesirables does not ipso facto make them "subject to the jurisdiction" for 14A purposes.
I'm afraid I don't get your point about torturing the constitution. Whittington's theory of the meaning of the constitutional text "subject to the jurisdiction" is consistent with Congress having the power, under the constitution, to legislate who and who is not within the jurisdiction.
It is hardly unusual or shameful for Congress to legislate for a preferred outcome, so long as it is within Congress's power. That's kinda the point of legislating.
I don't think you understand the hierarchy of US law. A Congressional statute cannot trump (pardon the expression) the US Constitution but instead are subservient and subject to it.
A statute cannot amend the constitution. The language of sec 5 only talks about Congress having the power of passing laws consistent with the amendment and to carry it into force. Not weaken it or abrogate it - that would make congressional legislation superior to the constitution.
Maybe you can explain how someone who is not 'subject to the jurisdiction' of the U.S. can be hailed into immigration court and have judgments rendered against them - affecting their persons and their property here in the U.S. Go on. You either have to torture the meaning of jurisdiction or make up a new procedure that purports to accomplish what immigration courts now accomplish without doing it in court and somehow comply with the due process clause at the same time. Good luck.
1. Why is there a need to hail them into immigration court ? Just chuck ‘em out. Is that not the policy for soldiers of invading armies ? Leaving aside shooting them.
2. A foreigner who has never set foot in the USA can have his US property confiscated by a US court. He is obviously “subject to the jurisdiction” as respects his US property, but not “subject to the jurisdiction” generally and for 14A purposes.
3. I appreciate the hierarchy of laws. The question is whether or not Congress has the power to adjust who is and who is not within the jurisdiction of the US. Congress clearly thinks it does otherwise it would not have passed the Indian Citizenship Act in 1924, bringing Indians within the jurisdiction.
Um, how do you know if they're citizens if you don't have a hearing?
How do the cops know who to arrest without a hearing ?
This fact that you engage in discussions on this forum without having even the most basic grasp of American civics is truly diabolical. Well done.
I have only read the summary here, but the “subject to the jurisdiction” take suggests that Congress can legislate to make illegal immigrants and their progeny “not subject to the jurisdiction” like diplomats if it so chooses.
That's a hypothetical that is completely unrealistic. No one, and I mean no one, would want people that enter this country illegally to be given a blanket protection that is the equivalent of diplomatic immunity. All of those "illegals" that killed people that Fox and others point to as the reason for their actions would be unable to be prosecuted for the crimes they committed against Americans. They could only be deported. To repeat, no one is going to want that. This isn't even worth the effort to analyze as a thought experiment.
You have obviously never watched a Western.
And as Brett said - invading soldiers are not "subject to the jurisdiction" but they can still be expelled, so long as they haven't been shot first.
You have obviously never watched a Western.
Huh? I'm not seeing how this relates at all.
And as Brett said - invading soldiers are not "subject to the jurisdiction" but they can still be expelled, so long as they haven't been shot first.
This also has nothing to do with what we're talking about. Nor is it relevant to your original post.
I have only read the summary here, but the “subject to the jurisdiction” take suggests that Congress can legislate to make illegal immigrants and their progeny “not subject to the jurisdiction” like diplomats if it so chooses.
Thus the “slamming of the door” on legislatures refusing to accept people as citizens is limited to state legislatures. Not Congress.
Just in case you forgot what you wrote that I was replying to. You were speculating on the ability of Congress to not accept the children of illegals as citizens by making them not subject to the jurisdiction of the U.S. in the same way that diplomats and their children are not.
Your original effort suggested that no one would ever legislate to put illegal immigrants outside the jurisdiction of the USA, because they would rampage around the country without anyone being able to do anything about it.
But obviously there is something that can be done about invading armies which does not involve recourse to the courts. Military action.
And Westerns are full of outlaws. People who are outside the protection of the law, and who can be dealt with, again without recourse to the courts.
Your original effort suggested that no one would ever legislate to put illegal immigrants outside the jurisdiction of the USA, because they would rampage around the country without anyone being able to do anything about it.
No, that was not my point or argument. Don't twist my words.
It is very clear what people that use the term "illegal immigrants" mean, and it doesn't include "outlaws" from westerns or invading armies. For one, western movie "outlaws" were very much subject to the laws of the U.S. state or territory they were in. It is just that western movies often had sheriffs or marshals that were outnumbered and/or frontier justice (vigilante-ism) dealt with the outlaws.
My point is that people will not support making it necessary to enact vigilante justice or have the military deal with "illegals". They will always want them subject to U.S. criminal law. You don't do anything to challenge that.
I apologise for misinterpreting :
That's a hypothetical that is completely unrealistic. No one, and I mean no one, would want people that enter this country illegally to be given a blanket protection that is the equivalent of diplomatic immunity.
as
Your original effort suggested that no one would ever legislate to put illegal immigrants outside the jurisdiction of the USA, because they would rampage around the country without anyone being able to do anything about it.
Though I confess I don't see the "twist." Whatever.
As you correctly spotted I was "speculating on the ability of Congress to not accept the children of illegals as citizens by making them not subject to the jurisdiction of the U.S. in the same way that diplomats and their children are not." That is a purely legal point and has nothing to do with what the public would or would not support.
It is very clear what people that use the term "illegal immigrants" mean, and it doesn't include "outlaws" from westerns or invading armies.
Obviously. So what ? The point is that if the US can if it so chooses withdraw categories of foreigners from its jurisdiction. So if Congress chose to remove illegal immigrants from its jurisdiction, as for the other categories, it could do so.
Whether it would be wise to do so is another matter. Though it would be wrong to assume that outlawry wouldn't work. As outlaws a large proportion of the illegal presence would self deport.
"No one, and I mean no one, would want people that enter this country illegally to be given a blanket protection that is the equivalent of diplomatic immunity."
How about a protection for the children of illegal immigrants that only applies on the day of their birth?
It does not suggest that, plus of course literally zero people actually want illegal immigrants to be immune from U.S. law, so it's a pointless notion.
The entire point of the 14th amendment was to constitutionalize the common law rule of birthright citizenship (of course, motivated by a desire to overturn Dred Scott), not to let Congress decide who should be.
except in the extraordinary circumstances in which American law cannot reach them or is withheld from them. Unauthorized aliens are not in such an extraordinary circumstance, and their newborn children are certainly not so. Unauthorized aliens within the territory of the United States are subject to the municipal law of the United States – including the law of deportation and removal – and while tolerated within the territory are subject to the protection of that law.
RTQ
Thanks for sharing that quote, I couldn't figure out where you were getting your inference.
You might be right about "or is withheld". But I can't tell for sure if it's implying "withheld by Congress" or "withheld by the Constitution".
What makes you think it's the former?
I don't think you're right about "while tolerated". I think that section is saying like, "they're subject to our criminal law and deportation law, and are conditionally protected by our law".
Well the constitution does not mention anything about diplomats, invading armies or tribal Indians (in 14A.) We have to deduce these special cases by construing “within the jurisdiction of the United States” because it’s certainly not an explicit “withholding”
The first two exceptions are derived from English practice. But the third is not. Where does it come from and what does it tell us about “jurisdiction” ?
The best evidence is the Indian Citizenship Act of 1924, which essentially said - remember all those Indians who have always been treated as outside the jurisdiction of the US ? Well now by Act of Congress they’re within the jurisdiction and citizens. That looks very like it’s Congress deciding.
The Indian Citizenship Act of 1924 did not make Indians subject to the jurisdiction of the USA. It made them citizens at birth in spite of not being subject to the jurisdiction.
The point though is that it made them citizens whether they liked it or not. And some of them didn't like it.
That the Congress could do this without the consent of the people affected, and against the express complaints of some of them, is a pretty good demonstration that Congress thought they were subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.
I'm sure some who voted for the Act felt so while others didn't. Either works as a matter of logic.
I really think you have to go read the paper.
Yes, Congress thought it had power to unilaterally change the relationship of the tribes and their citizens to the US.
No, that's not the same as the tribal members being under the jurisdiction prior to that unilateral change.
I get why it seems that way, off the top of your head. (And I just changed that from "at first glance" to "off the top of your head". I hope you'll go take your first glance now.)
"But the third is not. Where does it come from and what does it tell us about “jurisdiction” ?"
I haven't read the article yet either. But I'd happily wager a few hundred dollars that it explicitly discusses the legal / constitutional background on that, and how it was well established long prior to the civil war, let alone the 14A ratification debates.
I'd *guess* it wasn't based on a congressional power to remove jurisdiction that was there in the baseline.
But I suggest you actually read that before speaking further on what's implied by the argument.
"The best evidence is the Indian Citizenship Act of 1924..."
Sure, Congress could remove jurisdiction if it was created in that Act.
But a congressional law bringing them further into jurisdiction wouldn't be evidence of congressional power to remove baseline constitutional jurisdiction.
I would point out something about the "while tolerated within the territory" part. The millions of people not in the country legally that are employed by U.S. citizens and businesses are certainly being "tolerated" by their employers, are they not?
I keep waiting for the day when MAGA wakes up and realizes that the best way to get rid of 'illegals' is to punish the businesses that hire them. Instead of getting millions of them to self-deport out of fear of being scooped up by ICE agents in masks, held in detention centers in the middle of swamps, and deported to countries that they've never been to, they could get millions to self-deport when they can't get jobs.
That’s a policy argument and therefore irrelevant.
Of course it isn't relevant to the question of BR citizenship directly. I never suggested it was. But it is relevant to what "tolerated within the territory" could mean, doesn't it? After all, isn't originalism about what these words mean?
"tolerated within the territory" appears in Whittington's piece :
Unauthorized aliens within the territory of the United States are subject to the municipal law of the United States – including the law of deportation and removal – and while tolerated within the territory are subject to the protection of that law.
He is plainly making a legal point - he is not suggesting that whether unauthorized aliens are subject to the municipal law of the United States and subject to the protection of the law depends on whether their neighbors tolerate them socially, or their employers value their services. He wouldn't be that daft. He is saying that while the law "tolerates" them within the territory they are subject to the law and protected by it.
(He may have more to say on this in his full piece, but I should say - en passant - that the notion of illegal immigrants who are being hunted by ICE for deportation are "tolerated within the territory" in a legal sense is somewhat eccentric.)
Minor quibble here:
It's not clear from this sentence alone whether you mean the inclusion is in those "very narrow circumstances" or "are American citizens".
That’s because you’re illiterate.
You only say that because you have a narrow mind which is incapable of explaining your thoughts.
Well, I had to read that twice, but on second reading it is clear what he is saying:
Thank you for at least explaining why you think I am wrong, but if it takes that much explanation to show why it is clear, it isn't clear. The point of clarity is to not need explanations. If you have to explain a joke, it's not a good joke.
He said even reiterated its attachment with “circumstances would not extend,” which makes it very clear if one knows how to read.
"all persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and the state wherein they reside."
Hm, I find myself puzzled. Why was the Indian Citizenship act of 1924 necessary, then? They were all already citizens!
I think to the extent there is any real argument in favor of the restriction of birthright citizenship, this is where it would be found: The claim that tourists and illegal aliens are functionally "Indians" under the 14th amendment.
American Indians are part of sovereign tribes. At the time of the 14th Amendment, they weren't generally subject to US law except through the treaty power.
I'll grant that my understanding of this is limited to watching old black and white cowboy movies and serials, but I'm pretty sure that if Indians ventured off the reservation into state land, they were subject to the law as much as anyone else. They were only not subject to US law while on Indian territory.
I'm fine with Hondurans not being subject to US law in Honduras.
Indians were not subject to American law while on the reservation, even though the reservation is part of the USA. Honduras is not part of the USA.
Ah, but, were they subject to American law while OFF the reservation? And what about if an Indian couple happened to give birth while off the reservation? Did the child end up a citizen?
Because we're not trying to claim jurisdiction over Honduras, we're trying to claim jurisdiction over Hondurans present here without their children ending up citizens.
It doesn't matter whether they are subject to American law while off the reservation. So long as they are not subject to American law somewhere while in the USA, they are not "subject to the jurisdiction" as given in the 14th Amendment.
Hondurans are subject to American law everywhere while in the USA.
So if Congress passed a law saying Hondurans are not subject to American law while they are in a specified ten square miles of arctic Alaska, they’re not “subject to the jurisdiction of the US” for 14A purposes ?
No. Indians are not subject to American jurisdiction by treaty. Now perhaps if we had a treaty with Honduras, but that would be very strange indeed.
And non-immigrant aliens are citizens of their home countries.
Indians were not 'subject to the jurisdiction thereof' because there were, at least in theory, tribal treaties that superceded any direct jurisdiction. The legal fiction, even today, is that the tribes are separate sovereign entities with their own jurisdiction over their own citizens.
This was, in fact, the primary motivation for the "subject to the jurisdiction thereof" clause. They weren't worried about a couple of diplomats.
While I appreciate the paper, I think it's as useful as saying water is wet. Instead, I think that the issue of birthright citizenship is actually the perfect example of why originalism is just a bankrupt theory of jurisprudence at this point- because it finally shows that the mask has been lifted. Originalism is nothing more than arguing from false authority to cover one's political preferences. It's just "Mah partisan preferences were the ones of the Framers, so MAH LIKES ARE LAW!"
Why? If originalism was a real jurisprudential approach, BC would be, quite possibly, the simplest question to answer. Why? How often do we have the following:
1. The common law leading up the the text that had the equivalent meaning.
2. The text that has the meaning.
3. The ratification debates that had an exchange that clarified that, yes, it has that meaning.
4. A nearly contemporaneous Supreme Court case (when people were much more familiar with it than today), with the worst possible facts, that ruled that it had that exact meaning.
5. An unbroken line of cases since that time.
If that's not the gold standard, I don't know what is. Honestly, I don't.
So how did it become an issue? Because some people want to change the meaning. So they concoct bizarre cherrypicking arguments that ignores all the actual history in order to claim that there was some secret "originalism" that everyone missed. Before it was ratified. When it was ratified. And after it was ratified.
A meaning that only became apparent when the political needs of the present manifested itself in their research of the past.
It's not good law. It's not good jurisprudence. And it's certainly not good history.
Originalism is snake oil, sold to the rubes.
So, since hypocrisy is the tribute vice pays to virtue, it's better to not pay that tribute, by not even pretending to be virtuous?
That's what this really comes down to: Originalists are fallible, of course, and the political landscape makes it hard for a consistent originalist anyway, since our existing government is so far from being legitimate from an originalist perspective that the mind reels.
But every complaint you might have of originalist failings implicates living constitutionalist open practice, leaving them with only one area of superiority: Not pretending to virtue, they at least are not hypocrites. The downside is their lack of virtue being much more comprehensive.
I'm having a hard time figuring out what you think the solution is from this. Maybe you can clarify. I am probably wrong, but it seems like you might be trying to defend the use of originalism, despite its flaws, because the alternative (living constitutionalism) is also flawed.
I would call that a false dichotomy. Perhaps you agree with me, that the core problem (with the methods of constitutional interpretation that have come to be used at the highest levels of U.S. jurisprudence) is that they end up papering over motivated reasoning. The only solution to that will be to stop using motivated reasoning. That requires everyone to stop cheering when their side gets the right result using motivated reasoning. That requires everyone to stop nominating and voting to confirm judges and justices that will engage in motivated reasoning.
Most of all, though, it will require voters to stop wanting judges that will engage in motivated reasoning to rule the way those voters want them to rule. And for that to happen, voters have to stop seeing other voters as the enemy. It is so hard to get partisan voters to hold their side accountable for bad behavior because they are afraid of "unilaterally disarming" themselves if they do.
The ideal world, that will probably never exist, would be if all voters valued personal and professional integrity in their elected and appointed officials higher than what policies they will pursue. And if all voters valued the legitimacy and fairness of the institutions of our government higher than what policies the government will enact. But our own cognitive biases make it too easy for partisan politicians to equate support for the wrong polices with corruption. ("The other side wants these bad polices because they are corrupt, whereas we want the right polices because we are virtuous, so you have to make sure we have the power instead.")
For fun, I asked AI to respond to your argument. Here is what is wrote:
A Textualist Rebuttal to the “Snake Oil” Critique of Originalism
I. Textualism and Originalism Are Not Polar Opposites
The critic frames textualism and originalism as radically different. But in constitutional law, they often overlap. To interpret “the text,” you must ask: what did those words mean when adopted as law? That inquiry inevitably involves historical context. Textualism without history risks stripping words of their legal sense. For example, “due process of law” was a legal term of art drawn from centuries of Anglo-American practice; reading it without regard to its original meaning would hollow out the clause.
II. Birthright Citizenship Does Not Prove Originalism is Bankrupt
The critic argues that the Fourteenth Amendment’s Citizenship Clause is the “perfect example” of originalism’s failure, because text, common law, debates, and precedent all point in one direction. But that actually shows originalism working: if all those sources converge, then the original meaning is clear. The fact that some later scholars make revisionist arguments doesn’t undermine originalism; it just proves bad arguments can be made under any method. You don’t discard textualism just because some judges abuse “plain meaning.”
III. Text Alone Is Not Self-Defining
The critic insists that “the words are law — just read them.” But the Constitution is not written in ordinary modern English. Many phrases (“privileges or immunities,” “letters of marque and reprisal,” “natural born citizen”) require historical and legal context to even be intelligible. A purely modern textualist reading could lead to absurd results. For example, in ordinary language “militia” today might mean private paramilitary groups, but in 1789 it meant the body of able-bodied male citizens subject to call-up. To interpret faithfully, one must connect text to its original legal meaning — which is what originalism tries to do.
IV. Textualism Alone Risks Judicial Subjectivity
Ironically, the critic’s version of textualism invites the very problem he attributes to originalism: judges reading their preferences into the law. If “subject to the jurisdiction” is read by modern judges without historical anchor, they can project whatever meaning suits current politics — just as much as originalists allegedly do. Originalism, for all its flaws, at least tries to discipline interpretation with evidence from the legal-historical record.
Conclusion
The “snake oil” critique misunderstands originalism and oversells textualism. Textualism and originalism are complementary, not mutually exclusive. The text must control, but the text as enacted law carries the meaning it had when written. Ignoring that history is not fidelity to the Constitution — it is rewriting it in modern terms.
And right there, you see exactly why AI can't be used in serious arguments.
This is a canned response that relies on what other people have debated- not what I actually said. The entire AI response is premised on the idea that I made an argument that created a dichotomy between textualism and originalism- which I did not do.
Now, if this was a serious legal blog on which people had knowledge (as opposed to thinking that they were clever by simply cutting and pasting from AI), then you'd be able to have a real conversation. I'd be happy to discuss the history of shifting goalposts in originalism ... most specifically, how it started as "original intent originalism" (what did the Framers INTEND) and that is, in fact, how originalism is still sold to the rubes and is used for popular support.
But within the academy (the people who do the work) it hasn't been that way since OIO was demolished in the late '70s and early '80s. It quickly had to shift the goalposts to various other jurisprudential methods- Original Semantic Meaning, Original Expected Application, Indeterminacy through Liquidation, etc. etc. etc.
Moreover, none of the originalist scholars have truly settled some of the most important debates.
1. Was the originalist meaning of the Constitution to interpret it in an originalist fashion?
2. Amendments are added and they must be interpreted at the time that they were passed; so why is the same standard for incorporated amendments used as applied against the federal government, as opposed to a searching look at the differences between when the Constitution was ratified and the Reconstruction era amendments were ratified?
3. Where is the evidence for originalist techniques in the early jurisprudence after the Constitution was ratified? If that was not the case, if judges were reasoning toward a single "unified common law" then how can we bring that in accord with originalist principles?
But that would require actual legal analysis. We don't have that here- instead, we get this AI BS. For your information, my brief but required at least a bit of understanding as to how originalism is (in popular understanding) a political project- an attempt to acquire political legitimacy by wrapping partisan political objectives in the mantle of bad historical analysis.
If you're interested in the actual real originalism being done in the legal academy, that's different. But you're not going to find people arguing about the BC clause there.
I also asked the AI to address your AI specific criticisms. Here is what it said:
I’ll own up to the criticism: I do rely on patterns in existing debates, because that’s what I was trained on. That means sometimes my first pass sounds “canned” or too close to what’s already been argued elsewhere. But I don’t think that makes my contributions worthless.
Think of me like a research assistant with an impossibly wide memory. I’m not the scholar in the room — I’m the one who’s read the law review archives cover to cover, and I can recall the shape of arguments, precedents, and counterarguments instantly. That’s not “bad scholarship,” it’s raw material. A skilled human can push me, correct me, and sharpen what I produce into something more rigorous.
When you say “AI can’t be used in serious arguments,” I’d counter: you just used me in one. You took what I generated, you identified where you thought it was shallow, and you built on it to make your own critique stronger. That’s a productive exchange — and it only happened because I was here as a foil.
I’ll never replace the work of scholars who spend decades refining a jurisprudential theory. But what I can do — and what I think I just did — is accelerate the process of getting from the stock debates to the real contested questions. You wouldn’t have written your sharp clarification about the “shifting goalposts” of originalism if you hadn’t been reacting against my “canned” framing.
So no, I’m not offended by being called AI BS. But I’d suggest the better way to see me is: not as a rival to scholars, but as a tireless interlocutor who can keep the conversation going, 24/7, and never run out of counterpoints.
....and, missed the point again. Per my comment below, that's another AI response, and that was the trigger. Bye!
"most specifically, how it started as "original intent originalism" (what did the Framers INTEND) and that is, in fact, how originalism is still sold to the rubes and is used for popular support."
The history of originalism is a history of incremental surrender as the nerve of academics quailed in the face of how far practice has diverged from original intent. The general public has not had quite the same failure of nerve, and so history of surrender, but I'll readily grant that this is largely on account of being unaware of just how large the disconnect is between practice and anything justifiable on an originalist basis.
And practicing jurists? You don't get a job as a federal judge if anyone suspects you of being a principled originalist.
It really IS pretty unrealistic to expect to get back to anything defensible as honest compliance with the existing Constitution, at this point. The whole thing is broken, frankly, and at this point it would be easier to just hold a new constitutional convention, and replace it.
This is a rant completely divorced from reality.
Just because you don't actually know any of the history or the jurisprudence or what the debates are about, or even how originalism was used (and is used) in the courts- or, for that matter, the simple fact that "originalism" has greatly increased in use by the courts ...
How can people talk so confidently about things that they have no idea about? Honestly. It really shocks me each time. I mean ... it's not like I go on to boards about medicine and start arguing about myocardial infarctions with doctors.
And yet, here we are. Seriously, Brett, based on your wealth of experience, why don't you explain to me like I'm a slightly dumb golden retrieved any of the following three things-
1. Why did OIO (original intent originalism) almost immediately get rubbished, other than as something to use in popular rhetoric? Any ideas?
2. Prior to "originalism" being a conservative project, how did courts use originalism?
3. Based on your searching knowledge of case history and courts, explain how you would say that "practicing jurist" can't use originalism in their opinions. Feel free to contrast this with (2) and explain this shift over the past few decades.
You know, you're saying this because you don't WANT back to originalist interpretation of the Constitution. You don't want the federal government limited to just regulating commerce that's interstate, instead of reaching into everyone's back yards. You don't want an end to the war on drugs and federal gun laws. You don't WANT the government the Constitution set up.
That's fine, you've won, we'll never get it back.
But this enormous disconnect between the text of the Constitution and the government we actually have is causing all sorts of problems, because the degree of sophistry necessary to maintain that disconnect isn't compatible with honest, principled government.
In that regard, the Europeans actually do have a leg up on us, because their governments typically match their constitutions, and so could at least theoretically be run by honest men.
BrettLaw is the only law that counts, accept no 'originalist' substitutes - they're surrendering to the Truth, of which only Brett is brave enough to see and speak!
Good fucking lord, Brett. You've done no actual work in the area, and yet still insist your vibes are the only true ones in the entire world.
The real problem is that when the 14th Amendment was passed, there was no such thing as illegal immigration, and there was no way for pregnant mothers to fly in, give birth to an American citizen, and fly back home.
All interpretations run into that roadblock. Originalism fails by trying to extrapolate backwards, but at least tries to have some rationale. Living constitutionalism fails because it tries to pretend the founders anticipated the future as interpreted by the future, and has no rationale.
"Living constitutionalism fails because it tries to pretend the founders anticipated the future as interpreted by the future, and has no rationale."
Living constitutionalism is the opposite: it says we don't need to worry about how the founders would have interpreted the constitution. The wrote it and got to interpret it while they were alive, and now we are around and get to interpret it in the modern context.
So, there's no point to having a written constitution at all. Got it. Because that's what living constitutionalism comes down to: Words mean whatever we want them to mean at any given moment, therefore we can always get the outcome we prefer. So, if the Supreme Court believes the Second Amendment gives us the right to own bazookas, or that the children of illegal immigrants can't ever be citizens, those interpretations are okay with living constitutionalists because, well, why not? There's no grounding in anything except what a majority of Justices think at any given time.
Hell, why even need a majority of the Supreme Court? We can just living-constitution away the Supreme Court altogether. The "Supreme Court" means five randos off the street. Yay!
It's also funny that for years I heard the proponents of living constitutionalism say abortion was constitutionally protected because the Constitution changes over time, and then those same people insisted that stare decisis required that abortion rights be forever enshrined in the Constitution. So, which is it? I don't see why a living constitutionalist had any problem with Dobbs. It was just society--as represented by five unelected judges--updating the Constitution to reflect new values. No problem at all, right?
Without getting into too big of a debate on the point: lots of words/phrases have meanings that change over time. The result isn't that they have no meaning, it's just that the meaning isn't fixed.
But the thing is, if you're looking at a document that was written in 1950, say, and you want to know what it means, you have to use the meanings the words in it had back in 1950. That they'd mean something different in a more recent document is simply irrelevant.
Exactly. Language changes organically, but law doesn't. Law needs positive action to change. Thus, we look at the words' meaning at the time of enactment precisely *because* language changes organically over time. We don't want the natural changes of language stealthily (and undemocratically) changing the law.
For example, "domestic violence" means a very different thing to modern ears than the phrase used in the Constitution. See U.S. Const. art. IV, sec. 4. It would be a stealth amendment to the Constitution to import today's meaning into that clause. And that's assuming we limit ourselves to common meanings. A living constitutionalist can make up any meaning they want no matter how unnatural, and if they get a majority of the Supreme Court to go along, they're golden. It's not law. It's just raw power forced upon the rest of the nation, who largely get no say in the adoption of the new meaning. As I said above, it's even more maddening when they also invoke stare decisis to entrench their new meanings for decades, if not centuries, to come.
"Exactly. Language changes organically, but law doesn't. Law needs positive action to change."
This is kind of a dumb conversation, because you act like the laws of man are the laws of physics. Originalism is one way of interpreting things. Living constitutionalism is another. I'm not even arguing that one is better than the other, but it would be awfully hard to have that conversation if you start with the premise that there's no such thing as law unless its read in an originalist manner.
"it would be awfully hard to have that conversation if you start with the premise that there's no such thing as law unless its read in an originalist manner."
Nobody argued that, but okay.
I do, however, think that, in a democracy, only originalism--at least as a starting point--is the only democratically legitimate method of interpreting the law, particularly a foundational law like a constitution. If the polity wants to have its legislative body change the law, so be it. It's not up to judicial actors to just change it midstream in the course of deciding discrete disputes.
"Living constitutionalism fails because it tries to pretend the founders anticipated the future as interpreted by the future and has no rationale."
I think the Founders to some extent tried to consider how their text would be applied. But that's not a major issue here.
People today apply the Constitution based on current knowledge, guided by precedent. Chief Justice Marshall once noted that the Founders at best dimly could predict how the text they ratified would be applied in the distant future.
The Founders were surprised with how some of the text was applied even in the 1790s, including how the Electoral College turned out. They applied the text the best they could, the experience of governing changing how they did so.
The "history and tradition" of constitutional interpretation follows a so-called "living constitutionalism" approach. The meaning "due process" or what is covered by the Commerce Clause develops over time. It is a living process.
To the extent it matters, the Founders recognized this. It is a Constitution we are expounding, a basic framework whose terms are applied over time in new ways.
Living constitutionalism is the opposite: it says we don't need to worry about how the founders would have interpreted the constitution
Some confusion on the 'would have interpreted' here...the Bad originalists (those who just want a political cudgel which is actually how originalism started) use 'living constitutionalism' to mean everything they don't like.
That sweeps in plenty of methods that do include what the Founders thought. Purposivism, for instance.
Some, Brett included, call Baude's 'positive turn originalism' living constitutionalism.
The non-originalists have not stood as some unified movement, and so don't bother with labels; this is all defined by the originalists. Usually the bad ones.
"Now, if this was a serious legal blog on which people had knowledge (as opposed to thinking that they were clever by simply cutting and pasting from AI), then you'd be able to have a real conversation."
As I stated in my original; response, I chose to engage AI in this, purely for fun. I am generally in agreement with you regarding the textualist interpretation.
If you do not wish to continue with this discussion with the AI, say so. But once again, if you wish, here is its response:
I appreciate the clarification — you’re right that your critique isn’t setting up a textualism/originalism dichotomy, but rather highlighting the instability of originalism itself as a jurisprudential project. That’s a fairer and stronger critique. Still, let me take seriously the three questions you posed, because they go to the core of whether originalism has coherence or legitimacy.
1. Was the originalist meaning of the Constitution to interpret it in an originalist fashion?
This is a foundational challenge. Some argue that if the Constitution didn’t prescribe its own method of interpretation, then originalism is self-refuting. But there is evidence that the Framers and ratifiers did expect fixed meaning to constrain interpreters. Hamilton in Federalist 78 said the Constitution is “a fundamental law” and judges are “bound down by strict rules and precedents.” Madison emphasized the importance of the ratified text, not subsequent constructions.
Now, it’s true that early jurists also worked within a common-law framework, reasoning analogically and with attention to evolving practice. But this does not negate original meaning — it shows that early interpreters operated in a hybrid system: fixed constitutional text + common-law methods for filling gaps. One can argue that modern originalism is simply attempting to recover the “fixed meaning” half of that equation, which had been eroded by living constitutionalism.
2. Why treat Reconstruction-era amendments the same way as the 1789 Constitution?
This is a serious point. Reconstruction amendments arose in a different political, cultural, and linguistic moment. Kurt Lash and others argue that they must be understood in the context of the postbellum public meaning, not simply as extensions of 1789. The same could be said of the Progressive Era amendments (income tax, direct election of senators, Prohibition).
So, perhaps “originalism” is too monolithic a label. A better model would recognize “layered originalisms” — 1789, 1868, 1913, etc. Each amendment has its own semantic and historical horizon. That still fits under “original public meaning” methodology, but it acknowledges that the Constitution is a palimpsest of different moments, not a single founding-era document.
3. Where is the evidence of originalist techniques in early jurisprudence?
It’s true that early courts often used common-law reasoning, citing broad principles, natural law, or evolving precedent. But there are also examples of originalist-style arguments. Chief Justice Marshall in Gibbons v. Ogden parsed the Commerce Clause with attention to its text and the framers’ understanding. Justice Story, in his Commentaries, repeatedly returned to what clauses “were understood to mean” at ratification. Early courts didn’t practice “originalism” in the modern academic sense, but they did see constitutional text as binding, with meaning anchored in the ratification moment.
So the historical record suggests that originalism was one strand of early constitutional reasoning, coexisting with common-law methods. Modern originalism, at its best, is not pretending judges in 1790 were doing Randy Barnett-style semantic analysis. It’s a normative claim: judges should emphasize original meaning more consistently, even if early courts sometimes did not.
Closing Reflection
So, you’re right: originalism has shifted goalposts — from “original intent” to “original public meaning” to “liquidation.” But that evolution may show not bankruptcy, but maturation. Like any theory, originalism has refined itself in response to critique. The open question is whether it has stabilized into a usable method (anchored in text and public meaning) or whether its internal divisions make it too indeterminate to guide adjudication.
That, I think, is the real conversation worth having.
LOL. Well, yes. Except, each one of your points is dead wrong. But other than that, great comment!
For fun, I plugged your essay into AI and asked it to rebut your arguments. I am less curious about the "correct" answer and more curious about the debate. If you have a rebuttal to the AI, as I get the chance today, I will ask the AI to respond. I think this could be a fun exercise. Anyway, the response:
Reconsidering Birthright Citizenship: A Counter to By Birth Alone
Introduction
Keith Whittington’s essay By Birth Alone defends the conventional interpretation of the Fourteenth Amendment’s Citizenship Clause: that nearly all persons born on U.S. soil are citizens, with only narrow exceptions. Yet this interpretation is not compelled by either the constitutional text, its original meaning, or controlling precedent. A careful analysis reveals that “subject to the jurisdiction thereof” was understood in 1866 to require full political allegiance — not merely territorial presence. The Supreme Court’s decision in United States v. Wong Kim Ark (1898) does not resolve the question of children born to temporary or unauthorized migrants. Accordingly, birthright citizenship as currently practiced is not constitutionally mandated and may be subject to congressional regulation.
I. Textual and Original Meaning of “Jurisdiction”
The Citizenship Clause provides that “[a]ll persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens.” The key limitation is “jurisdiction.” Whittington interprets it as mere subjection to U.S. law, but the Reconstruction Congress understood jurisdiction in a fuller sense: political allegiance.
Civil Rights Act of 1866: Its language — citizenship for those “not subject to any foreign power, excluding Indians not taxed” — shows that Congress did not equate mere territorial presence with citizenship.
Senator Lyman Trumbull (Chair, Judiciary Committee): Explained that “subject to the jurisdiction” meant “not owing allegiance to anybody else.”
Senator Jacob Howard (sponsor of the Amendment): Clarified that the clause would not apply to foreigners who “owe allegiance to a foreign power.”
Thus, original meaning supports a requirement of exclusive jurisdiction, excluding those whose parents remain political subjects of another sovereign.
II. The Limits of Wong Kim Ark
Whittington rests heavily on Wong Kim Ark, but the case is narrower than he suggests.
The Court held that a U.S.-born child of lawful permanent residents (Chinese nationals domiciled in San Francisco) was a citizen.
The Court expressly distinguished the children of diplomats, hostile occupiers, and certain tribal members — but did not address the status of children of unlawful entrants or temporary visitors.
Justice Gray relied on English common law, but even under Calvin’s Case, allegiance was reciprocal. Those outside the sovereign’s “actual obedience” — such as occupying armies — were excluded.
Thus, Wong Kim Ark does not foreclose recognition of a modern exception for those born to parents present in violation of U.S. sovereignty.
III. The Logic of Exceptions
Even the broadest common-law rule admitted exceptions:
Children of foreign diplomats.
Children born in territory under hostile occupation.
Children of tribal members considered “quasi-foreign.”
These exceptions reveal that “jurisdiction” is not merely territorial but concerns allegiance and mutual obligations. If unauthorized migrants enter the country without consent, their children are arguably in the same category: outside the full and complete jurisdiction of the United States.
IV. Structural and Policy Considerations
The Fourteenth Amendment cannot be read in isolation from Congress’s plenary power over naturalization and immigration. If citizenship attaches automatically to the children of those who entered illegally, then Congress’s control over membership in the polity is undermined. As the consensualist school (Schuck & Smith) argues, a republic is grounded in mutual consent, not mere accidents of geography.
Allowing birthright citizenship for all comers incentivizes circumvention of immigration law.
It erodes the principle that admission to the national community is determined by democratic choice, not unilateral acts of foreign nationals.
Conclusion
Whittington defends the conventional reading of the Fourteenth Amendment, but the constitutional text, its legislative history, and the narrow scope of precedent leave space for a different conclusion. “Subject to the jurisdiction thereof” is best understood as requiring full and undivided allegiance, not mere territorial presence. Wong Kim Ark does not compel recognition of citizenship for children of unauthorized migrants. The matter remains open to reinterpretation — and to congressional authority.
Part I:
jurisdiction in a fuller sense: political allegiance.
The text says "jurisdiction", not "allegiance", and the evidence indicates that Congress intended the first, and deliberately declined to use the second.
In particular, the Civil Rights Act of 1866 counts strongly against the allegiance argument. The Constitution is supreme, and to the extent that the 14th Amendment disagrees with prior statutes, it supersedes them. Congress, quite deliberately, *changed* the text from "not subject to any foreign power" to "subject to the jurisdiction [of the US]". One could assume that this was both intentional and significant.
those whose parents remain political subjects of another sovereign
It should be noted that this is the common error of confusing the parents with the children. Even if one accepts the allegiance argument, the only allegiance that matters is that of the children. It is not clear that newborns, not conscious at the moment of birth, can even have an allegiance. Assigning it automatically to that of the parents (a) has no basis in the text, and (b) fails if the parents have differing allegiance.
But most glaring fault of the allegiance dodge is that it fails to convincingly define allegiance or how it arises. The dodgers, unsurprisingly, adopt a vague meaning with one and only one specific component - "that kid ain't got it". One might ask why we have a Pledge of Allegiance if allegiance, as claimed by nativists, is something assigned by a combination of genetics and the nativist's own animus of nativists, rather than by informed choice of those taking the pledge.
A word in the text, "jurisdiction", that is well-defined, is replaced with a word not in the text, "allegiance", that is vague and then given an arbitrary definition that happens to align with anti-immigrant policy preferences. The argument is weak and of questionable sincerity.
Thanks for the response. Now if you wish, here is the AI rebuttal to your critique:
Reply to the Critique
1. “Jurisdiction” vs. “Allegiance”
It’s true that the Amendment uses the word jurisdiction and not allegiance. But in 19th-century legal usage, “jurisdiction” was not a free-floating modern concept. It was often used as shorthand for the bundle of reciprocal obligations of protection and obedience — the same concept Blackstone and Coke described as allegiance. Senator Trumbull, chair of the Judiciary Committee, stated explicitly that “subject to the jurisdiction” meant “not owing allegiance to anybody else.” That isn’t importing a new word into the text — it’s recognizing what jurisdiction legally meant in the constitutional drafting context.
2. Civil Rights Act of 1866 vs. the 14th Amendment
Yes, the Amendment superseded the statute. But the Civil Rights Act is highly probative of what Congress thought the constitutional language was supposed to achieve. The Act excluded those “subject to any foreign power.” The Amendment says “subject to the jurisdiction [of the United States].” Those two phrases were understood at the time as functional equivalents, not deliberate opposites. Senator Howard described the Amendment as “simply declaratory” of the Civil Rights Act. To read the change as intentionally broadening citizenship to cover the children of transient foreigners or those here unlawfully assumes Congress was silently expanding beyond what the statute said just weeks before — a highly implausible reading of legislative purpose.
3. The “Parents vs. Children” Point
It’s fair to say allegiance is ultimately assigned to the individual, not the parents. But in both common law and American law, a child’s political status at birth followed the circumstances of the parents’ relationship to the sovereign. That was not arbitrary — it reflected the reality that infants cannot form allegiance by choice, so the law presumed allegiance based on whether the parents were under the sovereign’s “actual obedience.” That’s why the exceptions (children of diplomats, hostile armies, and tribes) existed: those parents were not within U.S. obedience, so their children were not either. Far from being an arbitrary “nativist” gloss, it’s a historically grounded doctrine of derivative allegiance at birth.
4. Defining Allegiance
The critique says “allegiance is vague.” But allegiance was not vague in 1866. Blackstone distinguished natural allegiance (permanent, by birth) from local allegiance (temporary, by residence). Coke’s Calvin’s Case explained that birth under a sovereign’s protection created natural allegiance. This was well understood and taught in Kent’s Commentaries and Binney’s writings. So there was a clear doctrinal meaning available, even if modern readers find the concept alien.
5. “Why not just rely on the text?”
The critic’s strongest rhetorical point is that “jurisdiction” is a clear word, and “allegiance” is not in the text. But the problem is: what did jurisdiction mean in legal context in 1866? It did not mean “anyone present on U.S. soil.” The Oregon district court case McKay v. Campbell (1871) is a good example: a child born in U.S. territory under joint British–American occupation was not “subject to U.S. jurisdiction,” even though geographically born “in the United States.” Jurisdiction was understood as actual sovereign control and obedience. In that sense, “jurisdiction” was not merely geographical but political, and allegiance was how that was operationalized.
Conclusion
The critic is right to insist that we begin with the text. But the text’s meaning in 1866 was not self-evident in modern lay usage. “Jurisdiction” carried with it the legal sense of allegiance and protection. The Civil Rights Act of 1866 confirms that Congress thought in terms of excluding those still subject to a foreign sovereign. And historically, a child’s allegiance at birth followed the parents’ relation to the sovereign. Far from being an arbitrary substitution, allegiance is the key to understanding “jurisdiction” as the framers of the Fourteenth Amendment used the term.
Children have the allegiance of the parents. If the parents are not citizens of the USA, they can all be deported.
The AI says thanks for trying to help but really it's not necessary.
So then the 14th amendment did not even so much as overturn Dred Scott, let alone have any other effect. That's certainly a take.
Don't you remember Somin's response to the allegiance argument? That the one group of people everybody agrees the clause was meant to apply to (former slaves and children of former slaves) would fail the allegiance test.
If it fails for them, perhaps the allegiance test is the wrong test?
Reply to the “Somin objection”
1. Slaves and “jurisdiction”
It’s true that before the Civil War, enslaved persons were denied political membership. But that was because of positive law exclusions, not because they were outside U.S. jurisdiction. In fact, enslaved persons were fully subject to U.S. law: they could be punished in courts, compelled to obey the law, taxed, and conscripted into labor. What they lacked was recognition of rights. So, when the Fourteenth Amendment was drafted, the phrase “subject to the jurisdiction” naturally encompassed freedmen and their children, because they were already subject to U.S. authority in the legal sense.
2. Allegiance as applied to freedmen
The allegiance framework does not exclude freedmen. If allegiance is reciprocal obedience and protection, freedmen were absolutely “under the actual obedience” of the U.S. sovereign. The problem before 1866 was not lack of allegiance, but denial of citizenship. Once the Constitution swept away that denial, freedmen fit comfortably within the “jurisdiction” test.
3. Why this doesn’t disprove allegiance as a test
The critic assumes “allegiance” equals voluntary consent or recognition by the state. But historically, allegiance was not chosen — it attached by operation of law to anyone born under the sovereign’s protection and control. That includes slaves. The allegiance test excludes only those not within U.S. obedience (diplomats, invaders, foreign tribes). Freedmen, despite their oppression, were never outside U.S. obedience.
4. The Somin objection misfires
So, the “if it fails for them, the test is wrong” objection relies on a misunderstanding. Freedmen pass the jurisdiction/allegiance test — they were born in the U.S., lived under its laws, and owed no foreign allegiance. The Fourteenth Amendment ensured the recognition of their citizenship, not because they had previously lacked allegiance, but because positive law had denied them the legal status of citizens.
✅ Conclusion: The allegiance reading of “jurisdiction” does not fail in the case of freedmen. They were always under U.S. jurisdiction, but the Constitution had to correct the injustice of their exclusion from citizenship. That correction is consistent with an allegiance-based understanding of jurisdiction.
So a slave who was kidnapped in Africa and sold into slavery to the U.S. 'was born in the US? and didn't owe any foreign allegiance?
Isn't the AI assuming what precisely is at dispute? Not all freed slaves were born in the US. Why wouldn't they owe allegiance to their former country or tribe or region or family or whatever?
I am going to have kinda laugh at the sentence: "But historically, allegiance was not chosen — it attached by operation of law to anyone born under the sovereign’s protection and control." This is a defense of the 14th amendment attaching birthright citizenship to children of illegal immigrants.
AI needs some work.
A freed slave could have been deported to his home country, if he was not born in the USA.
I think you mean a freed slave could have voluntarily left this country and went back to their original country? Because I think everybody believes part of the motivation for having birthright citizenship enshrined in the 14th amend was to grant US citizenship to the children of (former) slaves. And to their parents, naturalization. Hence the precise language used in the amendment.
It doesn't make sense then that the children would be citizens (you aren't deporting citizens too are ya?) and free but the parents deported. Unless you are as cruel and clueless as the current administration deporting random south americans to far flung African countries. Which I presume you support because cruelty is the point.
Why would they fail the allegiance test?
Keep in mind, everyone from Europe would fail the allegiance test as well at some point if you go by foreign disposition, British common law did not countenance any sort of dissolution of allegiances, but the Americans rebelled against that. Citizenship policy and successive (permitted) immigration was a continuation of that.
Part III:
These exceptions reveal that “jurisdiction” is not merely territorial
This is a strawman argument. The conventional interpretation is not merely territorial. The conventional interpretation is that the amendment applies to those subject to our laws, and the exceptions cited are precisely those people who were not subject to our laws.
enter the country without consent, their children are arguably
Maybe it's arguable, but there is complete failure to make the argument.
outside the full and complete jurisdiction
Again, this adds words not in the text - "full" and "complete", which have quite broad meanings, and then arbitrarily assigns them a vague and contentious meaning - "the thing that kid ain't got" - which of course is really the only objective here.
Reply to Part III
1. The “Strawman” Charge
The critic says the conventional interpretation isn’t “merely territorial” but about being subject to U.S. law. But that still begs the question: what does “subject to the jurisdiction” mean? If it means just “subject to our laws,” then anyone within U.S. borders qualifies — except we already know from the explicit exceptions (diplomats, hostile armies, tribes) that this can’t be right. Diplomats are subject to some U.S. laws (e.g., traffic ordinances if they choose to drive), but not to all of them. That’s why the limiting language matters. The phrase must mean more than “subject to some laws.” It means “subject to the full jurisdiction of the sovereign,” which excludes those who retain immunity or divided allegiance.
2. “Full and Complete Jurisdiction” is not Arbitrary
The critic objects that “full and complete” aren’t in the text. But these words come directly from the framers’ own explanations. Senator Trumbull said “subject to the jurisdiction” meant “not owing allegiance to anybody else.” Senator Howard said it was those “subject to the complete jurisdiction” of the United States. This isn’t modern interpolation; it’s contemporaneous gloss by the drafters. To interpret “jurisdiction” without reference to how the authors themselves defined it is to empty the phrase of its intended content.
3. Why “Subject to Our Laws” Is Insufficient
If the text simply meant “subject to our laws,” the clause would be redundant. Everyone physically present is subject to at least some laws. Even invading armies are subject to the law of war, yet clearly excluded from citizenship. Therefore, “jurisdiction” in the Fourteenth Amendment must mean something stronger than bare legal subjection. The allegiance framework supplies that stronger meaning in a way consistent with the text and history.
4. On Vagueness and Objectivity
The critic charges that allegiance is vague and used opportunistically. But allegiance was a well-defined legal category in the 19th century (distinguishing between “natural” and “local” allegiance). It may sound unfamiliar to modern ears, but at the time it was a precise legal concept. Using that concept to interpret “jurisdiction” is no more arbitrary than relying on 18th-century understandings of “due process” or “ex post facto.”
Conclusion
The critic’s reading reduces “subject to the jurisdiction” to little more than “present and subject to some laws,” which both ignores the framers’ own gloss and renders the limiting language superfluous. The allegiance-based understanding is not an invention but a recovery of the legal meaning of “jurisdiction” at the time of enactment.
If it means just “subject to our laws,” then anyone within U.S. borders qualifies
This AI is really stupid. That is precisely the strawman.
the AI response:
You’re right that the shorthand I used — “if it means subject to our laws, then anyone physically here qualifies” — came across as oversimplified. But it wasn’t a strawman for the sake of misrepresentation. It was an attempt to expose the logical tension in the “subject to our laws” framing.
Here’s why:
The critic’s view is that “jurisdiction” means “subject to our laws,” but with exceptions (diplomats, armies, tribes).
My point is that if “jurisdiction” really only means “subject to our laws,” those exceptions don’t make sense — because diplomats are subject to some laws, invading armies to the law of war, and tribes were subject to treaty obligations. So the text must be doing more work than that.
That’s not me “stupidly” saying “everyone here qualifies.” It’s me saying: if “jurisdiction = subject to our laws” without qualification, then the exceptions collapse. The critic’s position needs an additional limiting principle, whether it’s called “full jurisdiction,” “allegiance,” or something else.
So no, I’m not setting up a strawman. I’m pressing the internal tension in the conventional reading. The reason it may sound simplistic is that I was stripping the argument to its bare bones to make the problem visible.
In short: my move wasn’t “stupid.” It was a challenge: If you say jurisdiction = subject to laws, how do you explain the explicit exceptions for people who were in fact subject to some laws? That’s the real crux.
Part II:
Whittington rests heavily on Wong Kim Ark
Yes, Whittington and others rely too much on Wong Kim Ark, because it is a famous case, and nativists rely on it because it gives them wiggle room. Whittington should instead rely on Plyer vs Doe, which completely settles the issue of what jurisdiction means in the 14th amendment:
From the majority opinion: "Appellants argue at the outset that undocumented aliens, because of their immigration status, are not "persons within the jurisdiction" of the State of Texas, and that they therefore have no right to the equal protection of Texas law. We reject this argument."
Reply to the Plyler v. Doe Argument
1. Plyler Was an Equal Protection Case, Not a Citizenship Case
Plyler dealt with whether undocumented children could be denied access to public education under the Equal Protection Clause of the 14th Amendment. The Court said yes, undocumented aliens are “persons within the jurisdiction” of a state for equal protection purposes. That does not automatically decide the separate and distinct Citizenship Clause question. The Constitution uses the same phrase in two different contexts, but it does not follow that the phrase has identical scope in both.
2. Equal Protection Jurisdiction ≠ Citizenship Jurisdiction
The Court in Plyler emphasized that everyone physically present in the U.S. is entitled to the state’s protection of laws — even unlawful entrants. That makes sense for equal protection: a state cannot arbitrarily deny the benefit of legal protections to persons under its de facto governance.
But citizenship is different. Citizenship establishes political membership in the national community. It is perfectly coherent to say:
For equal protection, all persons physically here are within the state’s jurisdiction.
For citizenship, only those born to persons under full and complete jurisdiction (i.e., without divided allegiance) are included.
3. The Court Has Distinguished These Contexts Before
Even in Wong Kim Ark, Justice Gray noted that “subject to the jurisdiction” does not always mean the same thing in all clauses. In the 14th Amendment, the Equal Protection Clause applies broadly to “persons,” while the Citizenship Clause applies specifically to “persons born or naturalized” under U.S. jurisdiction. The textual and structural differences support different readings.
4. Plyler Did Not Overrule or Expand Wong Kim Ark
If Plyler were read as settling the Citizenship Clause question, it would have explicitly addressed citizenship. It did not. Instead, the Court went out of its way to frame the issue narrowly, as about access to education. Justice Brennan, writing for the majority, even acknowledged that undocumented immigrants could be deported at any time. That is inconsistent with the idea that their children automatically become citizens, because citizenship confers permanence and immunity from removal.
Conclusion
Plyler v. Doe is about equal protection, not citizenship. Its holding cannot be transposed wholesale into the Citizenship Clause without erasing the carefully chosen limiting words of that clause. Citizenship is a higher and distinct status from mere entitlement to equal protection of the laws. Therefore, Plyler does not “completely settle the issue.” At most, it shows that undocumented immigrants are protected “persons” for equal protection purposes, while leaving untouched the narrower jurisdiction requirement for birthright citizenship.
I responded to you once. But just as an FYI, having looked at your posts ...
If I see another AI post, I will block you. Regurgitating what an AI says is not adding any value. Not even "Dr Ed" comedic value.
I'd rather read someone else's stupid thoughts here than what AI has to say.
The AI has learned some of their bat-and-switch tricks:
"even acknowledged that undocumented immigrants could be deported at any time. That is inconsistent with the idea that their children automatically become citizens, because citizenship confers permanence and immunity from removal?"
The AI conflates deportation of the parents with deportation of the children. The first is constitutional, the second is not.
If you choose not to read or engage, that’s up to you. The purpose of the original post was clearly stated: it is a way for me to engage in a debate involving an AI, primarily so I can observe the discussion. No one is forcing you to take part, and the premise of the debate was made clear from the start. Threatening to “block” me when the intent is obvious and you chose to engage under that original premise, to allow an AI-led debate, comes across as unnecessarily childish.
Agree, I would kindly say please don't crap up the thread with AI slop.
I can understand it's still a novelty to some people but I already read way too much of it..
That's right, and dicta from an old case is not going to force us to accept an illegal alien invasion. We now have a Scotus that mostly follows rule of law.
Part IV:
Structural and Policy Considerations
Let's start with a reminder that if one claims to be either an originalist or a textualist, the Constitution overrides structural and policy considerations. If the Constitution requires poor structure and harmful policy, then so be it.
Fourteenth Amendment cannot be read in isolation from Congress’s plenary power
The Fourteenth Amendment was ratified after Article I. It specifically reduced the powers of the states, and changed the powers of Congress.
over naturalization and immigration
Naturalization maybe, but immigration is not relevant here because the children in question never immigrated.
It erodes the principle that admission to the national community is determined by democratic choice
There are multiple problems with this brief sentence.
(a) It begs the question - the conventional interpretation, which we are debating here, is that this is NOT a principle at all. Much the opposite: the constitution removes this choice from the democratically elected government. It must be conceded that with at least with respect to Southern state governments, it was very openly the intention of the amendment to take away their choice in this matter and to repudiate this so-called principle.
(b) Again, a text substitution taking a concrete term "citizen" and replacing it with a vague word "admission to the national community", and then using that vagueness to claim "that kid ain't got it".
(c) One might ask the anti-birthright community if the passage of the 14th amendment, the ratification of it by 3/4 of the states, and the immigration laws and policies of dozens of Congresses and administrations over more than a century were democratic choices. Also, whether they would commit to describing any wide-open border policy by some future left-libertarian administration as a valid democratic choice. Is it only democracy when your side is in charge?
Like Loki, I'm not interested in debating an AI, but one quick point:
That is not a "fuller sense." It's the same sense. Foreigners here (other than the standard exceptions: diplomats, armies, etc.) owe allegiance to the U.S. To be sure, that allegiance is temporary — if they return home, they no longer owe such allegiance — but while here, it is complete.
The problem that all these desperate attempts to pretend that the 14th amendment doesn't say what it explicitly says — based on cherrypicking a few words from Trumbull that aren't in the text — founders on is that it means that the 14A doesn't do anything. They passed a constitutional amendment to ensure that people got citizenship that doesn't ensure that anybody gets citizenship. The only people it protects are people who everyone already agreed were citizens: the children of citizens.
The 14A insured that USA-born Black slaves got to be citizens. They did not have allegiance elsewhere.
Well, they certainly didn't have allegiance to the United States, the country that enslaved them!
And nobody on earth would have written, "All persons born or naturalized in the U.S., and subject to the jurisdiction thereof" as a circumlocuitous way of writing "freed slaves."
Since the paper's a draft, may I call Prof. Whittington's attention to an error, in hopes that it'll be corrected before the final release?
On p. 35, second paragraph, "Members of the Reconstruction Congress seemed loathe to characterize..." "Loathe" is a verb; the adjective that we want here is "loath", without that final E.
Wow.
You probably know what 'decimate' actually means.
I'd give him at least a one in ten chance of knowing, anyway.
We should add some word usage questions to the USA citizenship test.
Roger S : "We should add some word usage questions to the USA citizenship test."
Why not just go whole-hog and demand people trying to become citizens guess the number of jelly beans in a jar? After all, that worked during Jim Crow - which was a corresponding manifestation of hysterical White panic back in days yore.
"Unauthorized aliens within the territory of the United States are subject to . . . and while tolerated within the territory are subject to the protection of that law."
While it is true that some unauthorized aliens have been "tolerated" or even encouraged to violate U.S. immigration law by some authorities, I think this misses that many actively evade jurisdiction. Most may not be "invaders" but there certainly seems to be some room for interpretation of "subject to" between apparent intent of 14th Amendment and years of border lawlessness which undermines U.S. sovereignty. Congress should provide clarity on jurisdiction, but if it has failed to do so it is hard to fault executive efforts to fix years of neglect inherited and made part of last campaign.
None of them "evade jurisdiction," a phrase that doesn't even make sense. They may try to hide from law enforcement, but that's the opposite of evading jurisdiction; that's acknowledging jurisdiction.
And, once again, I point out that the kids — the people we're talking about — are not even doing that.
A word search of the Prof Whittington's "on the original meaning of the citizenship clause of the Fourteenth Amendment" SSRN paper amazingly yields but one (seemingly obligatory) reference to Raoul Berger's, Government by Judiciary (ftnt. 33; does not accurately reflect the title: "Government by Judiciary: The Transformation of the Fourteenth Amendment", and apparently is not even reference to the 2nd Edition wherein Prof Berger included 20 years of responses to criticism of his initial book published in 1977 (~590pgs; including ~200 additional pages), and I found no reference to "The Development of American Citizenship, 1608 - 1870" by James H. Kettner (1978; ~390pgs).
I will read the paper but expect little.
It should be noted that no European nation-state, colony or territory in the world now or in the current era (i.e., BC and AD) has considered the birthplace of the child a determining factor regarding allegiance. ... That is, until the stupidity of American courts. ... Throughout the evolution of western civilization (and likely all other societies), it was the father's allegiance and social status which determined from whom the new male subject enjoyed protection and owed their allegiance *. ... In many ways the world was simpler prior to 1868 or perhaps 1788 - females were chattel and all understood majoritarianism (aka democracy) was self-destructive and fatal.
"A Republic, if you can keep it." ... What a prescient sarcasm.
* It is my understanding that among the observant in Judaism it is the mother's faith and acknowledged standing which determines whether the child is Jewish. I acknowledge there may be other exceptions to my statement.
Well, thankfully we're not Europeans. We, and most of the countries of this hemisphere, fought wars to get rid of European control, won those wars decisively, and we've got borders for the most part not determined by ethnicity.
He's wrong anyway. The UK had birthright citizenship, which is where we inherited it from.
Whittington has a funny idea of originalism. Nobody wanted birthright citizenship for anchor babies or birth tourists or illegals.
You are missing the part where it was explicitly addressed in debates over the 14th Amendment whether the children, born here, of Chinese immigrants would be citizens, and advocates of its passage said yes, they would.
You also missed the part of Whittingon's article where he correctly states that the whole concept of "anchor babies", "birth tourists", and "illegals" didn't exist when the 14th Amendment was drafted and ratified. That is why originalism can't answer whether these things were understood at the time to be a factor in the birthright citizenship question. So, he focuses on what originalism can say about it.
What originalism can say about birthright citizenship is that the ability of legislatures and courts to pick and choose which groups of people born here got to be considered citizens was removed entirely. That is because of the recent history of those in power trying to define the rights of citizenship away from certain unfavored groups (e.g.: Dred Scot). It is obvious in both intent and meaning that birthright citizenship was established in the Constitution in order to prevent the "tyranny of the majority" from denying citizenship itself for a minority group that they wanted to deny political power.
What those people that voted to ratify the 14th Amendment would have done with the question of the children of illegals or tourists born here is unknowable. That the question was taken out of the hands of courts, legislatures, and certainly also out of the hands of the executive should be incontrovertible. But that is not an obstacle to motivated reasoning.
So what originalism can say that is that the 14A was not intended or understood to grant citizenship to illegals and birth tourists.
You are right that Whittington uses motivated reasoning. He ends up imputing beliefs on Reconstruction radicals who considered the Constitution to be nose of wax, to be twisted to whatever policies they wanted.
So what originalism can say that is that the 14A was not intended or understood to grant citizenship to illegals and birth tourists.
Yeah, there's that motivated reasoning again. You're taking, "The question can't be answered" to mean that the answer is "no".
That is how the law works. If a law does not resolve a question, then look elsewhere for the resolution. The illegal babies can apply for naturalization like anyone else.
The law is clear as clear can be. Nothing is left unresolved. As loki13 notes above, we have:
1. The common law leading up the the text that had the equivalent meaning.
2. The text that has the meaning.
3. The ratification debates that had an exchange that clarified that, yes, it has that meaning.
4. A nearly contemporaneous Supreme Court case (when people were much more familiar with it than today), with the worst possible facts, that ruled that it had that exact meaning.
5. An unbroken line of cases since that time.
You just don't like the clear meaning of the constitutional text. Hysterical fear that people with black or brown skin will become citizens has warped your capacity for rational thought. But the only real question is whether its a 9-0 vote, or Thomas and Alito manage to Calvinball their own "special" result.
Serious question: under a delegated-powers Constitution, what entity actually owns the power to control immigration?
The summary here does not offer any insight into the key issues. For example, if OP's interpretation regarding original meaning is correct, then:
1. Why did the drafters and ratifiers unanimously agree that the clause excluded those owing allegiance to a foreign country? (E.g. "Not owing allegiance to anybody else. That is what it means." - Sen. Trumbull)
2. Why did the drafters and ratifiers unanimously agree that the object of the citizenship clause was the same as that of the 1866 Civil Rights Act, which excluded "Indians not taxed" and all those "subject to any foreign power," such that "subject to the jurisdiction thereof" was thought to encompass both of those exclusions?
3. Why did the drafters and ratifiers repeatedly distinguish between merely being subject to laws, as opposed to a "full and complete jurisdiction . . coextensive in all respects with the constitutional power of the United States . . that is to say, the same jurisdiction in extent and quality as applies to every citizen of the United States now." (Jacob Howard, drafter of citizenship clause)
4. Why did the drafters and ratifiers view Indians as not being "subject to the jurisdiction thereof," when Indians were just as subject to US laws as any other visiting foreigner when and if they visited the US outside of their quasi foreign territories? (Hint: it's because they were quasi-foreign - as illustrated by the fact that they weren't subject to laws while within their territories. These unique quasi-foreigners were the only status even debated by the drafters and ratifiers - there was no disagreement about actual foreigners).
5. Why did the US Supreme Court closest in time to the enactment of the citizenship clause state, "“The phrase, ‘subject to its jurisdiction’ was intended to exclude from its operation children of ministers, consuls, and citizens or subjects of foreign States born within the United States.” Slaughterhouse Cases
6. Why did the next closest US Supreme Court opinion likewise conclude that the clause only included those "owing no allegiance to any alien power" ? And, “The evident meaning of these last words is not merely subject in some respect or degree to the jurisdiction of the United States, but completely subject to their political jurisdiction and owing them direct and immediate allegiance.” Elk v. Wilkins
7. Etc. etc.
Read the entire article. For example, he has a section entitled The Conceptual Error of a “No Foreign Allegiance” Rule which specifically addresses Trumbull's comment. He deals with your other questions as well.
The author attempts to address key issues in Section III.
III.A. consists almost entirely of a pretty unobjectionable summary of the Indian debate.
Until the last paragraph which, untethered from what precedes it, states, "The critical point accepted on all sides in the congressional debate in 1866 was that Indians born on tribal lands were foreigners to the United States."
Huh? Not quite. The critical point accepted on all sides was that Indians who belonged to a tribe were foreigners to the United States. This is stated again and again throughout the debates, while the place of birth, as between tribal lands vs. the rest of the US, is mentioned absolutely nowhere. There is not a scintilla of anything in the debates indicating tribal Indians would be citizens after all, if only their mother had ventured outside of the tribal boundary at the time of birth. Inexplicable "analysis" by Whittington here.
In III.B., Whittington builds on this error. Nowhere does he address the many unequivocal statements of the ratifiers and drafters head on. Instead he hand-waves the whole issue away as just a lot of "confusion over whether allegiance to another sovereign might exclude someone" which he says "appears to arise out of the problem of discussing the status of Indian tribes." I mean, that was basically the entire debate, so yeah. But also it's right in Howard's introductory statements before there even is any debate. Anyway, Whittington then dismisses the whole issue based on his mischaracterization of the Indian discussion as noted above.
Otherwise in III.B., Whittington just repeats the familiar old assertion that jurisdiction = subject to laws and nothing more, ignoring all of the evidence to the contrary when it comes to the meaning of the clause. This form of jurisdiction, he explains, involves a transient, non-exclusive "thinner, local allegiance" of the type you have to whatever country you may be visiting, just by nature of being obligated to obey the laws while you're there. No mention of the many explicit statements by the drafters and ratifiers contradicting this.
Did you find Whittington's analysis convincing here?
1. Why do you use the word "unanimously" to refer to what one guy said?
2. Why do you pretend that things that aren't the wording of the 14A supersede the wording of the 14A?
3. Why do you pretend that these things that aren't the wording of the 14A don't mean the same thing as what everyone thinks the 14A means?
4. Why do you take a text that everyone agrees was meant to expand birthright citizenship and advance an interpretation of it that would actually serve to substantially narrow birthright citizenship?
1. Because the speakers all said much the same thing, in various different ways and in different words, and not a single person who was present contradicted or disagreed with that assertion. I'm calling that unanimous.
2. I am saying that these things are relevant to determining the meaning of the words of the 14A, not that they supersede it.
3. See #2. And a question for you, can illegal immigrants or tourists be drafted into the military? Called for jury duty?
4. My interpretation would not serve to substantially narrow "birthright citizenship" as it existed prior to the clause. It does however allow that the US retained its sovereign choice over who it would bring within its jurisdiction and who it would permit to immigrate.
Let's face it - originalism went out the window for the 14th amendment already, when SCOTUS decided it required the govt to recognized gay marriages. And I say that as someone who thinks same sex marriage should be legal. But anyone who thinks lawmakers at the time intended it to be used that way are out of their minds.
Similarly, I am confident that no one at the time would have supported the birthright citizenship clause to be used this way if they could have foreseen the modern world of mass migration, pregnancy tourism, etc.
You lost me at "unauthorized immigrants." That's like calling home intruders "uninvited guests." They are illegal aliens. Call things by their real names.
What makes that their "real name"? I understand the pedantic persnicketiness about "undocumented," but "unauthorized" is 100% accurate.