The Volokh Conspiracy
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Journal of Free Speech Law: My "When Are Lies Constitutionally Protected?"
The tenth of twelve articles from the Knight Institute’s Lies, Free Speech, and the Law symposium.
The article is here; the Introduction and the Conclusion:
Sometimes lies are constitutionally punishable: Consider libel, false statements to government investigators, fraudulent charitable fundraising, and more. (I speak here of lies in the sense of knowing or reckless falsehoods, rather than honest mistakes.) But sometimes even deliberate lies are constitutionally protected. In New York Times v. Sullivan, the Court held that even deliberate lies (said with "actual malice") about the government are constitutionally protected. And in United States v. Alvarez, five of the justices agreed that lies "about philosophy, religion, history, the social sciences, the arts, and the like" are generally protected.
The Supreme Court hasn't explained where the line is drawn, and that leaves unclear where important areas of controversy—such as laws punishing lies in election campaigns—should fall. In this short article, I hope to offer an account that makes sense of the precedents and a framework for making future decisions….
The Court has never precisely explained when lies are constitutionally protected and when they are punishable. But the particular lines that it has drawn seem generally consistent with a comparative institutional approach to responding to lies. Government determination of which assertions are false and should therefore be punished is always perilous. When institutions—scholars, the government as speaker, the media, perhaps opposing election campaigns—are available to deal with such matters, there is a way to avoid the peril while still rebutting the lies. It's imperfect, but it's better than the alternative of government coercion; in such a situation, "the fitting remedy for" lies, as well as for "evil counsels," is rebuttal.
But in other situations, when the harm from lies is serious and alternative institutions for rebutting the lies aren't likely to exist, the government can indeed try to deter the lies by the threat of criminal prosecution or civil liability. That explains the constitutionality of properly limited libel law, and of the laws punishing fraud, perjury, and the like. And that can help decide where the lines can be drawn in the areas that remain unsettled.
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Genocide incitement, which is usually a collection of lies, is a heinous federal crime that is defined in 18 U.S. Code § 1091 – Genocide.
Maybe genocide incitement is special because genocide incitement is an element either of the express malice of genocide or of the dolus specialis of genocide.
In order to legitimize, to normalize, and to justify ongoing Zionist genocide, which is directed against Palestinians, a Zionist claims that a Roman Expulsion of Greco-Roman Judeans took place. With this lie the Zionist seems to demonstrate express malice or dolus specialis of genocide because no modern Jew is a descendant of Greco-Roman Judeans while ancestors of Palestinians are the first Judean followers of Jesus.
Should the Zionist, who lies about the Roman Expulsion, which never happened, be arrested, tried, and almost certainly convicted of genocide incitement?
The justification for their actions, such as it is, doesn't need to go back 2000 years, but only 2000 hours to last fall.
Genocide is neither a legitimate response nor a legal response to any action.
A colonial settler or supporter of the baby killer nation tends to lose the ability to think rationally. Can a reasonable person believe that Hamas both committed a horrible mass slaughter and also took hostages for negotiations?
Zionist colonial settlers have been lying about Palestinians since Ottoman Times. If there had been rapes, mass murder, and baby-beheading, there would have been no need to lie about them.
The Zionist leadership concocted lies to cover for the genocide, which the Israeli government decided to perpetrate because of the collapse of Golani Brigade.
The Zionist military implemented the Hannibal Directive (as the Hebrew press has reported) and committed mass slaughter. The Zionist government blamed the mass slaughter on Hamas in order to legitimize and to justify mass murder genocide against Palestinians. The Zionist lies meet the definition of the international and US federal crime of genocide incitement. On Oct 16, 1946 the Nuremberg International Tribunal hanged Julius Streicher for the same sort of genocide incitement.
The Zionist logic of mass murder genocide against Palestinians of Gaza is the same logic that Nazis used to justify mass murder genocide against Jews.
The Nazis always told us they were fighting Jewish Bolshevism. The Holocaust started after Operation Barbarossa (invasion of the Soviet Union) began.
To the Nazis, all the civilian deaths were collateral damage of the war against Jewish Bolshevik terrorism, and every Jew including a baby was a Judeo-Bolshevik terrorist. The judges of the Nuremberg Tribunals (metaphorically) laughed at this nonsense. The propaganda of Zionists and of supporters of the State of Israel is equally if not more ridiculous and just as evil.
Native Resistance during WWII — Native Resistance Today
During WW2 we Americans considered the native resistance to be heroic and admirable when it fought or killed racial supremacist genocidal Nazi invaders in occupied Europe.
Today we Americans must consider the native resistance to be heroic and admirable when it fights or kills racial supremacist genocidal Zionist invaders in stolen Palestine.
The Zionist mentality is completely congruent to the Nazi mentality, and the US Zionist movement commits heinous crimes according to the US federal code while the baby killer nation has for 75 years been a suppurating festering cancerous tumor in international law and on the surface of the planet.
"no modern Jew is a descendant of Greco-Roman Judeans"
That's a lie.
"while ancestors of Palestinians are the first Judean followers of Jesus."
How do you trace the descendents of the first Judean followers of Jesus?
No horns. Duh
This is not my area of expertise, but just intuitively I don't see how it is possible, 2000 years after the fact, to definitively say who is, and who is not, descended from anyone. There have been 2000 years of migrations, conquests, inter-marriage and wars. On the question of whether modern Jews are descended from "Greco-Roman Judeans" I think the only honest answer is "maybe, maybe not."
More to the point, though, what difference does it make?
"More to the point, though, what difference does it make?"
Certainly makes no difference to me.
"just intuitively I don’t see how it is possible, 2000 years after the fact, to definitively say who is, and who is not, descended from anyone."
DNA studies, as I understand, indicate a high probability that about half of the genetic material in certain modern Jewish populations derives from the ancient middle east. I infer this to mean that many modern Jews and many modern Palestinians share ancestry and that this ancestry is of ancient middle eastern origin.
As for determining who among modern populations is descended from an early follower of Jesus, that's just silly nonsense.
Many Americans believe that either the fairy tale of a Roman Expulsion or genetic anthropological nonsense is a defense to the accusation, which alleges that the baby-killer nation perpetrates an ongoing genocide before the eyes of the world. The Levant is not the Middle East even if Zionist propagandists try to confuse the two regions.
For the good of the human race, we must punish every Zionist on the planet for participating in an ongoing genocide. It is inexcusable that in 2024 the leaders of white states continue to give the baby-killer nation a pass to commit genocide.
We apply comparative historical analysis.
In Greco-Roman Palestine there was an Aramaic-speaking Judean population that practiced Palestinian Biblical Temple Judaism and a larger Aramaic-speaking Samarian population that practiced Palestinian Biblical Samaritanism.
Since the Hasmonean Period we can identify a large Greek-speaking convert population that practiced Hellenistic Biblical Judaism, which seems to start in Alexandria and which spreads to the Western Roman Empire. While there were some Greek-speakers that practiced Samaritanism, the population of Hellenistic Samaritanism was much smaller than the population of Hellenistic Judaism.
The Samarian population has a period of growth after the Samarian Temple is rebuilt in the 2nd century CE. We find records of emigration of Aramaic speaking Samarians and Judeans north to Syria and to a few small communities around the Black Sea.
We also find emigration of Aramaic speaking Judean scholars of Judaism to Babylonia.
We don't find one Aramaic speaking Judean scholar of Judaism to the Roman West. As the Eastern and Western Roman Empire became Christian, emigrant Aramaic speaking Samarians returned to Samaria unless they converted to Christianity. Likewise for emigrant Aramaic speaking Judeans.
The Greek-speaking population that practiced Hellenistic Judaism had no reason to emigrate to Palestine, which had become a major center of Christianity.
The population of Hellenistic Judaism shows no knowledge of Hebrew or Aramaic until the 9th century CE. The population of Hellenistic Judaism is almost certainly completely non-Judean in origin.
Every Zionist claim of the return of the Jews is a lie at least by the clear and convincing standard.
Even if return of the Jews were not a lie, a return after an absence of two millennia is not a defense to an accusation of genocide.
The mere existence of the Zionist state negates the international anti-genocide legal regime and undermines international law.
From which other group of Christians do Palestinian Christians descend? We have Roman and Byzantine records of the development of Palestine into a center of Christianity. We also have records of Palestine during the early Islamic period and during the Crusader period. No author records a major influx of Christians. The largest immigrant community of Christians seems to be the Armenian community of Jerusalem. This community, which dates to the 4th century CE, has always been small.
So we should draw modern boundaries at an arbitrary time stamp as-was 2000 years ago? And that itself was conquest-based?
I say we reactivate imperialism and start terminating dictatorships. Start with every place in the middle east besides Israel.
The international community banned genocide on Dec 11, 1946 and made this ban jus cogens. Zionist colonial settlers put their genocide plan into full operation in Dec 1947. The white states gave the Zionist colonial settlers a pass to commit genocide, but genocide is an international capital crime without a statute of limitations. The solution is simple. Every Zionist throughout the world must be arrested and transferred to a detention camp to await trial for his life in a court of appropriate jurisdiction. All Zionist assets must be seized so that they can be used to make the victims of Zionism whole. Once Zionism is neutralized, the world will become a much better place.
In the case of the 2026 election, lies about Russian collusion should be cited as an example. The Mueller report concluded that there was "no evidence." So the lies appear to have originated in the highest echelons of the FBI with the intent to influence the election, and later to infer that Trump's presidency was illegitimate.
It seems to me that government sponsored lies should be punished most harshly. But I have never heard of such a case being prosecuted.
The Mueller report concluded that there was “no evidence.”
That's not what the report said.
It said it did not find sufficient evidence, under a quite narrow definition of collusion. And conspicuously left the obstruction question open.
the highest echelons of the FBI with the intent to influence the election
Someone, I think, has been lying to you.
Sarcastr0, people aren't going to play pretend with you anymore. The FBI has a history of election interference.
You offer no evidence. Why would you? You aren’t here to talk about real things.
The Mueller report concluded that there was “no evidence.”
Only if you accept Barr's misleading summary.
Mueller concluded that there was Russian interference (as did the Senate Intelligence Committee) and that the Trump campaign were happy as a result, but he did not resolve the question of whether there was collusion.
Yes, 'It was possible, but we found no evidence to establish it.' does not resolve the question. In the sense that, no, you really can't prove there isn't a unicorn behind that tree.
So, sure, maybe they were collaborating on it, and were just really good at spycraft, to the point where wiretaps just weren't enough.
But that seems a thin basis for claiming the Russian collusion allegation is still viable.
You can easily determine whether there is a unicorn behind a tree. You go and look. You get into unfalsifiable claims only when you cannot even imagine a feasible test.
“There is a unicorn living in my backyard.”
“I don’t see one.”
“It’s an invisible unicorn.”
“I don’t see any tracks.”
“Its magic allows it to pass without any trace.”
Russel’s Teapot is another good example of how you can end up with such claims and how to deal with them.
‘It was possible, but we found no evidence to establish it.’
Who said that?
There was evidence though not sufficient to establish what we might call "probable cause," as the layman may use the term.
Recently you claimed that there was sufficient evidence of Obama's ineligibility (foreign birth or something) to justify a "hearing." Looks like you definition of "evidence" is malleable.
The first birther was his literary agent.
That's a lie.
Is collusion a crime, even when it involves a foreign power? I'm not aware of a statute.
Accepting anything of value from a foreign source by a candidate or campaign is illegal, I believe. “Dirt” on an opponent would probably be considered something of value.
I think that's a stretch, and therefore baloney.
Everything about that paragraph, including the date and the grammar, is wrong.
1) 2016, not 2026.
2) The Mueller report did not in fact conclude there was "no evidence." You just fabricated that and put it in quotes.
2a) What the Mueller report actually said was that it wasn't assessing whether there was collusion because that's not a legal term.
2b) What the Mueller report actually said was that in fact Russia tried to help Trump win, and that Trump knew that and welcomed it — but that there was insufficient evidence of an actual quid pro quo conspiracy.
3) No "lies" "originated in" any echelon of the FBI. Assuming there were any lies at all.
4) The FBI in fact kept the entire thing confidential (as was proper, but as was not done for the investigation of Hillary) before the election, so it could not have had any intent to influence the election.
5) You mean imply, not infer.
"3) No “lies” “originated in” any echelon of the FBI. Assuming there were any lies at all."
Per the IG report, the FISA applications from the FBI were lousy with crucial omissions. Omissions which I think could be fairly characterized as lying by omission.
The IG report, best I can tell, makes no assertion of any "crucial" omissions.
I will grant you the IG did not literally use the word "crucial". The term used, instead, was "serious".
'The term used, instead, was “serious”.'
Best I can tell, the report does not describe any "omissions" as "serious."
Best as you can tell without actually reading the report?
The fact is that you are trying to undermine Mueller’s finding that the Trump campaign did not conspire with Russia to steal the 2016 election. That should be the end of the garbage innsuations of “collusion” orginating from the Hillary/DNC hit job. But Mueller was a clown, and farmed out his investigation to politcal hacks who laced his report with innuendo and assertions that had no legal substance and no place in this report, in a desperate attempt to try to blacken and confuse the key finding. Crap like: “A statement that the investigation did not establish particular facts does not mean there was no evidence of those facts.” You can obfuscate all you want. The hacks who wasted millions with nonsense collusion investigations certainly tried. But the Hillary and DNC lies were exposed as lies, however you try to spin it.
"The fact is that you are trying to undermine Mueller’s finding that the Trump campaign did not conspire with Russia to steal the 2016 election."
Mueller made no such finding.
Didn't Mr. Mueller expressly disclaim such a determination?
The Volokh Conspiracy is increasingly the Truth Social of legal blogs.
Uh, wrong. But maybe you and Schiff can schedule a press conference, with all his as of yet unrevealed daming evidence, to dispute that? Maybe even do a pre-screen of the non-existing pee pee tape?
Why are you such a liar. Or, are you just a willingly ignorant witling?
So Schiff is the honest guy out there with all the evidence? Where is he hiding all that proof?
You made a false claim about what Mueller found. How does that have anything to do with Schiff or me or evidence?
If you can substantiate your claim that "Mueller’s finding [is] that the Trump campaign did not conspire with Russia to steal the 2016 election," do it. Else, go back to playing switch.
What the F are you talking about? There was no evidence of President Trump conspiring with the Russians. Muelller found no such evidence. That was obvious in 2016 because the whole lying BS crap was a Hillary/DNC campaign smear. One of it not greatest electoral frauds in US history.
Politically, Mueller cleared Trump of collusion. But, he did not establish that accusations of collusion were constitutionally unprotected lies. And that's the case even for accusations made after his report was issued, let alone accusations made before the report was issued or prior to the investigation.
Some would say that these accusations were part of a conspiracy to defraud the United States.
And some would say that the moon is made of cheese. So what?
Sounds more plausible that the BS charges the Biden regime are using to attack President Trump.
If the accusations were knowing lies intended to defraud, they would not be protected. But, Martinned2 makes a good point.
Lies only for political gain are not fraud.
I don’t believe that is established law. For example, can the state proscribe an intentional lie about when election day is? Or, an intentional lie about whether dead people voted in order to stop certification of an election result?
It depends on the partisan affiliation of those making them, obviously.
"I did not have sex with that woman... I never told anybody to lie, not a single time; never."
Why I'm so perplexed on the partisans switching sides about Stormy Daniels. (And no, it is not a campaign spending violation. That didn't work on John Edwards. It won't work here. Not how any of that works.)
I'm a partisan. I opposed both the Clinton impeachment and Trump's hush money prosecution.
Edwards was prosecuted. That they decided not to retry him after a mistrial does not make the legal theory false. It does make the claim that "it depends on the partisan affiliation" false, however.
I did not claim partisan affiliation had any impact on culpability under the law. Otherwise it would have been stupid to mention John Edwards. I was referencing the interest in prosecuting such cases tilts in heavily, though not exclusively, in a partisan direction. Especially when it involves "lies". The partisan-ness of the Edwards case was not his official party affiliation but the liberal interest in extending campaign finance law enforcement. With his career over and stature diminished, he became expendable, an acceptable sacrifice to the cause.
Mistrial? You missed something:
Edwards, a two-time presidential candidate, accused of soliciting nearly $1 million from wealthy backers to finance a cover up of his illicit affair and illegitimate child during his 2008 bid for the White House, was found not guilty on count 3 of the six-part indictment. That count pertained only to whether Edwards illegally received several hundred thousand dollars in donations from wealthy heiress Rachel "Bunny" Mellon to cover up the affair in 2008.
https://abcnews.go.com/Politics/john-edwards-guilty-count-admits-moral-failing-mistrial/story?id=16378643
This sounds vaguely familiar. Sure, as a matter of law such a prosecution has not been found unlawful (unlike the Ted Stevens prosecution, for example). I heard recently difficulty in obtaining a conviction is a valid reason not to prosecute. The point remains that prosecuting such crimes is exceedingly difficult, not a slam dunk. And often involve a difficult intersection with the First Amendment. As to many attempts to regulate political campaigns.
"Why I’m so perplexed on the partisans switching sides about Stormy Daniels. "
That a whole class of Republican wing nuts went into a rabies-like frenzy over the Clinton blowjob and seem to be fine with Trump's relationship with Ms Daniels (Clifford) and his subsequent lies and illegal financial machinations to quiet her is indeed perplexing.
Actually, that is not true. m It is not perplexing at all.
And, why do all the crackpots who got excited about Foster's suicide and try to blame it on Clinton not say a word about the suicide of Epstein and the fact that Trump controlled the entire federal apparatus at the time? And, the fact that Trump had much more reason to ice Epstein than Clinton did Foster.
No what we're not fine with is the gross misuse of prosecutorial power to attack political opponents with meritless charges. Sickening banana republic police state tactics. Courtesy of that reptile in the WH.
I’m equally perplexed about the people who claimed the Lewinsky affair was only about sex and was nobody else’s business (MoveOn.org!) as I am by those greatly bothered that a president receiving oral sex in the Oval Office because it was a terrible attack on the moral fiber of the Republic suddenly being disinterested in a president who cheated on his pregnant wife with a porn star. YMMV
If you're saying that the clown Mueller and all his hack political operative staff could find no evidence to substantiate the claims that President Trump conspired with Russia to steal the 2016 election, I agree. And not surprising, since Hillary/DNC, through their operatives paid for the lies to smear the Trump campaign and later undermine his presidency. A complete hoax and maybe the greatest electoral fraud in US history.
As a political matter, "Mueller cleared Trump" does not imply Mueller found no evidence of collusion. See my comment above about fraud being unprotected and my thoughts about the likelihood of this being fraud.
The phrasing “found no evidence of collusion” is such an artful dodge. Sure there was some brief low level interaction which Mueller identified, but no evidence Trump was aware or sanctioned it. So on the one hand, partisans can claim Mueller did find "collusion". When they do so, everybody likes to pretend that it was Trump personally, or that it somehow helped his campaign (rendering the election results somehow tainted).
But actually, Trump maybe still knew, approved, and benefited. The proof of the conspiracy is that there is no proof! Such a stupid, never-ending argument.
Riva said Mueller "could no no evidence to substantiate the claims that President Trump conspired with Russia to steal the 2016 election." I was pointing out that's factually wrong, which undermines Riva's rant that the accusations and investigation were fabricated frauds.
I specifically addressed why claiming evidence of interaction with his campaign was found, while technically accurate, is false with respect to what people mean when they talk about whether the Mueller report exonerated Trump himself of “Russian collusion”.
It’s a matter of public record that various people in government and the Clinton campaign leaked misleading information to the media to create the public outcry necessary to initiate an investigation. Bootstrapping. In retrospect, there was not enough to justify an investigation of what was being alleged (personally by Trump), although that doesn’t mean that bootstrapping attempt violated any laws. Just political dirty tricks.
And no, any so-called obstruction by Trump (ignoring presidential immunity) did not prevent Mueller from finding actual evidence of Trump’s personal collusion. There never was any there there. The obstruction shiny object was an attempt to manufacture a process crime. The walls are closing in on the pee tape!
False. It is actually a matter of public record that the investigation was initiated because Alexander Downer reported to the FBI that George Papadopoulos had drunkenly bragged to him that Russia was offering Trump assistance by offering him dirt on Hillary Clinton… and then shortly thereafter, they leaked the hacked DNC emails through Wikileaks. This was before the Steele dossier even existed.
.
Citations.
Durham felt there was enough to open a preliminary, but not a full investigation. And, many disagree with him on the latter. But, if government officials intentionally opened an investigation on false pretenses to damage Trump (Durham concluded this was not the case), that could go beyond dirty tricks.
As to obstruction, Trump got what he deserved. Had he cooperated with the investigation, Comey would have cleared him within a year with no special counsel. But, Trump is a such a man-baby, he couldn’t accept the fact that Russia interfered on his behalf (without collusion), and thus had to lash out and stonewall.
https://www.google.com/search?q=It+is+actually+a+matter+of+public+record+that+the+investigation+was+initiated+because+Alexander+Downer+reported+to+the+FBI+that+George+Papadopoulos+had+drunkenly+bragged+to+him+that+Russia+was+offering+Trump+assistance+by+offering+him+dirt+on+Hillary+Clinton
Lotsa citations.
What? There is NO evidence that President Trump conspired with Russia. It was all fabricated by Clinton/DNC throught various cutouts, including Perkins Coie. They hired a foreign operative, Steele, who used questionable Russian sources to fabricate the BS the media and FBI ran with, until their hoax ran out of steam. A disgraceful fraud. Like I said, maybe the worst in US history.
I think the framework discussed in the article makes a great deal of sense in theory. Given how politically fraught these decisions end up being, however, it strikes me as unlikely it could be implemented successfully. Particularly with respect to speech about government actors and election law disputes, we've seen litigation weaponized in such a way that the process is the punishment. Even unsuccessful criminal and civil proceedings tend to allow politicians and public figures to curry favor with their base while impoverishing and distracting their political opponents, achieving a political goal by illegitimate means. When there's a shift in power, the targeted side has a strong incentive to retaliate.
Seems to me the only way to deter the abuses described above is a set of rigid limits, erring on the side of speech protection, with strong penalties for unsuccessful actions (e.g., anti-SLAPP laws that actually work). Even if such limits lack nuance and allow some harmful speech to slip through the cracks, the alternative is worse - transactional costs associated with political speech that effectively shut down legitimate debate.
"strong penalties for unsuccessful actions"
Are you on board with my proposed "Loser Dies" rule for lawsuits? In case you're not familiar, the rule defines "loser" as including the client and his/her legal team. Modeling and simulations show at least a 50% (conservative estimate) reduction in court crowding and total legal costs to the economy each year the rule is in place.
I will do my Cato thing and repeat that I think that United States v. Alvarez (2012) was wrongly decided. I see no reason why knowing falsehoods (i.e. statements of fact that the plaintiff can prove were false and where the plaintiff can prove the defendant knew they were false when they made them) should be constitutionally protected. Everything short of that (reckless falsehoods, etc) becomes more difficult, but the Supreme Court could have done everyone a massive favour by excluding knowing falsehoods from first amendment protection.
Antisepsis was originally considered misinformation or disinformation when the concept was first enunciated during the 19th century. The medical establishment worked hard to suppress Semmelweis’ recommendation for hand-washing and seems to have considered Semmelweis' recommendation to be libelous. Today’s disinformation may be tomorrow’s obvious fact. It’s almost always better to answer speech with speech than with suppression.
If speech is an element of express malice of genocide or of a specific malicious strategy (dolus specialis) of genocide, the speech is genocide incitement and should be punished up to the punishment (death), to which the Nuremberg International Tribunal sentenced Julius Streicher.
It’s almost always better to answer speech with speech than with suppression.
That in no way follows from the example you give, which illustrates the scientific method at work. Spending 5 minutes on this blog should give you plenty of examples of speech being answered with speech resulting in everyone being worse off. Just last week I discovered that Covid misinformation is still widely accepted by people who comment here, even though accurate Covid information was proved right by the fact that Covid cases have fallen through the floor in recent years.
I hope the history of antisepsis does not illustrate the scientific method at work. Two major proponents of antisepsis committed suicide because they felt impotent to prevent childbed fever. If the medical establishment had had its way, the concept of antisepsis would have been suppressed, and a woman would still be likely to die of childbed fever after she gave birth.
There was misinformation. Jack Marshall cited an example.
https://ethicsalarms.com/2020/06/08/oh-no-its-monday-ethics-review-6-8-2020-a-yoos-rationalization-orgy/
However, as public health advocates, we do not condemn these gatherings as risky for COVID-19 transmission. We support them as vital to the national public health and to the threatened health specifically of Black people in the United States. We can show that support by facilitating safest protesting practices without detracting from demonstrators’ ability to gather and demand change. This should not be confused with a permissive stance on all gatherings, particularly protests against stay-home orders. Those actions not only oppose public health interventions, but are also rooted in white nationalism and run contrary to respect for Black lives. Protests against systemic racism, which fosters the disproportionate burden of COVID-19 on Black communities and also perpetuates police violence, must be supported.
Where's the misinformation?
Jack Marshall is a moron who wouldn't know his ethics from a hole in the wall. The people who wrote that — and it's pretty sad that 4 years later, you're still obsessing about it — were frivolous, but nothing in there is actually "misinformation." "Protesting against racism is so important that it outweighs the need to quarantine" is not false; it's opinion.
I genuinely can't grok how someone can be alive in 2024 and say what you just said.
We are about to see widespread occurrences of a new method to publish falsehoods. AI imitations of politicians spreading what amount to lies about themselves will be published by their opponents. That should not be punished as mere false speech. It should be punished as criminal conduct.
Didn't you hear? It’s almost always better to answer speech with speech than with suppression. Let all politicians publish fake recordings of each other, that will definitely promote the quality of debate.
There will be no problem proscribing AI lying imitations under Breyer's controlling Alvarez concurrence. Moreover, a blanket prohibition on AI imitations might not even implicate the First Amendment.
Uuuuh...criminal impersonation is already a crime in most (all?) jurisdictions.
Great point!
It is akin to forgery!
In my state, criminal impersonation requires seeking "pecuniary benefit" so would not apply to impersonation for political advantage.
We are about to see widespread occurences of a new form of lying and lawfare by politicians. When they are caught on legitimate video saying or doing something scandalous, they will falsely claim that it’s an AI imitation, and attempt to have their opponents jailed for impersonation.
I intend to combat this by believing every single bad thing I see about either major party nominee, even if the animation looks like a 1980s video game.
If you're a government official and you've publicly advocated for all White women to abort their White babies, are you advocating genocide?
If Michael Keaton killed himself in Multiplicity, would that make him guilty of genocide?
Professor Volokh's article pays scant attention (a passing reference at p. 687) to the proposition that lies that are integral to criminal conduct lack First Amendment protection. I wonder why.
As Justice Bear It wrote for SCOTUS last year in upholding the constitutionality of 8 U.S.C. § 1324(a)(1)(A)(iv), which forbids "encourag[ing] or induc[ing] an alien to come to, enter, or reside in the United States, knowing or in reckless disregard of the fact that such [activity] is or will be in violation of law," against a First Amendment overbreadth challenge:
United States v. Hansen, 599 U.S. 762, ___, 143 S. Ct. 1932, 1947 (2023) [footnote omitted.] Accord: Cox v. Louisiana, 379 U. S. 536, 555 (1965), Haley v. State, 289 Ga. 515, 528, 712 S.E.2d 838 (Ga. 2011).
Donald Trump is attempting to recast his lies about the 2020 election, which are averred in the Fulton County indictment as overt acts in furtherance of a broad state RICO conspiracy, as "core political speech" protected by the First Amendment. These efforts should be doomed to failure.
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I don't.
Trump got his tongue.
#Courage
#Character
#Principle
I think it all comes down to how the government distinguishes lies from truth, and to what extent true statements are threatened as a result.
Since "the process is the punishment," then let us be cautious about even allowing the government to accuse someone of lying in the first place. The accusation is as likely to be filed because the government doesn't like criticism, as because the government doesn't like falsehood.
Perhaps there ought to be a "loser pays" law applicable to the government as well as private parties. If a government accusation of false statements is itself false, then the government officials who made the accusation should be personally liable for the legal expenses of the accused, lost work, etc.