War for Hire
Radley Balko | December 19, 2006, 11:02pm
Mark Hemingway has a fascinating piece in the Weekly Standard on Blackwater, the nation's largest don't-call-us-mercenaries security firm.
I wasn't really sure where I stood on the privatization of much of the military before I read the article, and I'm not where I stand after having read it. It is very interesting, though, and it's pretty clear there's a major transition going on. Consider this graph:
In the first Gulf war, the ratio of private contractors to military personnel was one to sixty. This time it's approaching one to one. The Washington Post last week reported that the Pentagon counts about 100,000 contractors in Iraq. Private contractors are being used to supply everything from pizzas to porta-potties; still the decidedly larger ratio is no doubt the result of the 20,000 or so serving in a quasi-military role--almost three times the number of British military forces currently in Iraq.
What to make of this? On the one hand, I suppose that if we're going to be getting our war on, the private sector's going to do lots of things better than the military bureaucracy does. On the other, even the most ardent free marketeer in me is revolted at the thought of attaching profit to war. I can't see many net positives in the fact that there's a growing industry that thrives not just on government contracts, but that's especially profitable when we're warring with another country.
Sam Franklin | December 20, 2006, 12:35pm | #
Thanks, Adam. Further comments:
. . . I doubt a court looking at a contract would think that this consent by an employer to criminal jurisdiction over its employees would be good enough.
Well, this part of the issue doesn't interest me. I am more interested in what these individuals have consented to, rather than what the government actually makes of their consents. Being a libertarian, contractual consent (and its limitations) is very important to me, regardless of whether the government makes a hash out of the law in this area or not.
In fact, I don't think you can even consent to criminal jurisdiction by contract.
This seems unlibertarian to me. Why should you not be able to sell this right off to the highest bidder?
Usually, a court has to find a statute that gives it jurisdiction- these usually are based on the place where the crime was committed, the status accused is, or the status of the victim.
When I was in law school, in California, the law professor, an incredibly grumpy and acidic man, made a hapless student read the california state jurisdiction statute. The student complied. Professor Stolz, whose health seemed to be failing that semester, asked the student what he thought of the California "long arm" statute. The student (no, it wasn't me) said he did not know what to make of it. At that point, Prof Stolz boomed out in a voice improbably loud for such a frail, obviously-pained man that the statute was "GENIUS!" He then let the class fall silent for a bit, mildly surprised at the outburst before continuing, "I wrote it . . ." Here is the statute Prof Stolz wrote:
[i][b]"A court of this state may exercise jurisdiction on any basis not inconsistent with the Constitution of this state or of the United States."[/i][/b]
I think many jurisdiction statutes are both broader and fuzzier than you think they are. I know that individuals can consent to jurisdiction of civil courts. (as I know see that you have acknowledged) Criminal court jurisdiction would seem to implicate a somewhat different balance of competing jurisprudential values, but I see no reason to assume that one cannot effectively consent to criminal jurisdiction in the form of a contract.
Anyway, whether such a consent is legally operative is still less interesting to me than what these contractors have actually consented to. when one gets in a jam (like the thing they posted at Inactivist yesterday), I need to know how sorry to feel for the contractor. regardless of what the law is, the kinds of jurisdiction that the contractor has explicitly consented to by contract defines the metes and bounds of my personal symopathy (if any). You can probably see why I say this from a libertarian perspective.
I know of no statute that gives a court criminal jurisdiction based on contractual consent.
I no of no statute that excludes contractual consent as a basis of jurisdiction. When the jurisdictional question is controlled by the US Constitution (minimum contacts, trad notions of fair play, etc. etc), then i will say that I know of no case (the actual words of the Constitution aren't much help on the limits of state jurisdiction) that says contractual consent is an insufficient basis for criminal jurisdiction.
2) I'm an Army JAG and have never heard of a consent to criminal jurisdiction being in a contract (at least as a standard clause).
What about the contracts that the actual enlisted military personnel (as opposed to the mercenaries) sign? Has buck private consented to any jurisdiction contractually in his enlistment deal contract. I would have thought that they do, but have no JAG experience.