Nick Gillespie | July 13, 2005
Former Reason intern and current New York Post columnist Ryan Sager reports on an incredible abuse of campaign-finance law in Washington state. Two Seattle radio hosts got behind a signature drive for a ballot intitiative designed to repeal a recently enacted tax hike on gasoline, talking about it a lot on their show. The group pushing the initiative, No New Gas Tax, clearly benefitted from the press.
A lawyer with the chief pro-tax hike group, Keep Washington Rolling, convinced a county prosecutor to file a suit against the initiative, claiming that the radio hosts' time was an in-kind contribution and that the initiative's organizers had failed to disclose it. Sager asks some questions:
So, what happens when a talk-radio jock is seen as "campaigning" for a candidate for governor? Or a state legislator? He could quickly find himself making an illegal contribution, far in excess of the limits.
And why do these types of enforcement actions always seem to cut in favor of the government?
San Juan County Prosecutor Randall Gaylord told me that his "personal opinion about the initiative played no part in this." But a Keep Washington Rolling press release quotes Gaylord as saying his county has "a lot at stake" in the initiative fight and that the gas-tax increase is "a fair way to pay for it."
If there's a silver lining, it's that citizens in Washington state seem to have little patience for this idiocy.
On Friday, No New Gas Tax turned in 420,518 signatures to get I-912 on the ballot -- some 200,000 more than needed.
According to Bader [head of No New Gas Tax], [the judge's] ruling ticked off voters and fueled signature-gathering tremendously.
"Maybe," he said, "I should report it as a contribution."
Whole thing here.
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Well, I didn't get to read the article (a little crunched for
time) but from what Nick excerpted I can only say: this was bound
to happen. Never have i understood the logic of Buckley v.
Valeo, equating "spending money" with "free speech." If
there's two things the founding fathers managed not to conflate,
it's speech and commerce.
I know people get antsy when there's talk of stifling campaign
contributions (despite the fact it amounts to little more than
bribery these days). But establishing the expenditure is speech
wasn't the way to hold on to the right.
Because..... now we have the corresponding inevitable conclusion:
speech equals expenditure. How can we argue that it's not? Or
moreover, how can we argue that without having to overrule
Buckley?
Once the concepts were conflated, this was bound to happen, and
here we are. Should make for some neat verbal gymnastics, but the
fact is there isn't much of a way for the fly to get out of the
bottle now. As the headline says, speech is money and money is
speech, and thanks to Buckley, that's a verbal and
conceptual trap that isn't going to go away.
Speaking as a local I can tell you that Seattle, and King
County, politics have been dominated by one party for so long that
we have descended into a kind of Chicagoan slime pit of corruption
and political hackery. Just look at the mess of our last governor's
election for an example.
The fact the 'one party' in this case is the Democrats is besides
the point; this kind of thing seems to happen anytime one group
maintains a power base for too long. After all, they get to pick
the lawyers and the agency directors. They get to control the big
projects and grant the resulting contracts. They get to set the
budgets to reward or discipline as needed. What else can come of
that kind of thing but corruption?
The real issue here is the fact that they are starting to use any
tool at their disposal to supress dissent. An indication, I hope,
that the pendulum has swung the full extent of its arc in this
direction and will start to return towards the center.
This is not a new ploy. California Congressman David Dreier pulled the same stunt last year, filing a complaint with the FEC against KFI and Clear Channel radio hosts John and Ken, claiming that the John and Ken Show's Fire Dreier Campaign was an illegal in-kind contribution.
Never have i understood the logic of Buckley v. Valeo,
equating "spending money" with "free speech."
A little thought experiment here: Is there any expression of your
ideas, other than speaking out loud with your unamplified voice,
that does not involve the expenditure of money? I can't think of
any. Entering a comment on a blog requires a functioning computer
(which costs money), and a functioning website (which also costs
money). Posters and flyers? Money. And so forth.
Now, do you really think that the right to free speech is really
nothing more than the right to conversation? If not, then I think
you are well on your way to understanding why regulating the
expenditure of money used to communicate your ideas is the
regulation of the communication of your ideas, and an infringement
on your right to free speech.
If there's two things the founding fathers managed not to
conflate, it's speech and commerce.
Except that the founding fathers did not understand "commerce" to
include "spending money."
The advocacy is the _show_ not an ad. You can tell them apart
easily because the show draws audience, and an ad drives them
away.
The _show_, which produces the audience in the first place, is what
makes ads have value at all; and selling audience to advertisers is
the business of the radio station.
So, in short, the radio station has a right to engage in its
business, selling audience, and the courts can butt out.
Incidentally John & Ken suck since they went political and celebrity trial all the time. The old whimsy was great, on KABC and KFI before that. Then they discovered that women listen and went template.
You have a right to free speech but not speech that costs
more than $0.00
Since there are paid speakers, and as RC Dean points out, speaking
in nearly any medium costs money, all speech is commerce. Speaking
freely(financially) and silence also affect interstate commerce
therefore are subject to regulation. Sigh
By the way, who's surprised that pols and lawyers are using
campaign finance laws against regular citizen rather than the other
way around?
If there's two things the founding fathers managed not to
conflate, it's speech and commerce.
HA HA HA HA!!!
HA HA HA HA!!!
HA HA HA HA!!!
That has got to be one of the silliest things I've ever read here.
The Founders were quite savvy in their combination of commerce and
speech; just look at Benjamin Franklin's career as a printer for
example, or at the very nature of the complaints of the colonists
against the British government.
David,
Well, the First Amendment butts heads with the Commerce Clause in
that instance then.
Hakluyt and RC Dean,
Look at the following examples, and after each, say either "speech"
or "commercial":
Is buying an ice cream a speech act, or a commercial act? Writing a
story about how much you liked the ice cream? Selling that story to
a publisher? Buying a pen? Buying paper? Writing with that pen on
that paper? Buying air time on tv? Composing a message to run
during that air time?
Now... here we go: Transferring money to the general account of
your business partner? Transferring money to the general account of
your mortgage company? Transferring money to the general account of
a policial candidate?
If for some reason, you said "speech" as to the last of these
questions, ask yourself this: should it make any difference WHO you
are transferring money to, or WHY? Commerce is commerce. It
shouldn't be anybody's business WHY you are sending money
someplace.
Thus, any attempt to restrict somebody's right to purchase pens,
placards, tv air time, or campaigns, should be analyzed under
Commercial principles (and the Constitution specifically provides
for regulation of commerce).
Any attempt to restrict somebody's right to display particular
words on those placards, or on those tv ads, should be analyzed
under the first amendment.
The first amendment, you will agree, is different from the commerce
clause. Thus, the founding fathers DID conceptually separate speech
from commerce.
Separate, distinct concepts, with separate, distinctive sets of
laws governing them.
At least they were, until Buckley made it the law of the
land that the two were identical. Literally, identical.
Now what we have are people using this misguided idea to argue that
when somebody speaks on behalf of a candidate, they are
literally making a contribution to his campaign. If you're
going to say that "when one spends money, one speaks" then one must
also accept the absurd corollary, that "when one speaks, one spends
money."
My point was: there was no need to conflate the ideas of spending
and speaking, in order to preserve the unfettered right to make
campaign contributions. By simply upholding the right to spend
one's money as one chooses, the SCOTUS could have avoided this mess
(the one in the article). It never had to be a speech issue at
all.
Only the sentimental notion that "sending money to my favorite
candidate is an expression of my thoughts" drives this conundrum.
One's subjective feeling of glee at furthering the cause of a
candidate does not make writing a check a speech act. It is a
common misconception, now made into law. And the flip side of that
misconception is now coming home to roost.
independent worm,
So are you saying that the first amendment protects only the
political content of an expression or communication? So all other
speach may be regulated as commerce? Who decides what is political?
If I for some strange reason decided to picket a grocery store with
signs telling them to lower their price of milk, how is that
different from buying milk from a competitor, and thus giving them
the same information, that I think their price is too high. Would
you take the stand that both of these are commercial transactions?
All commercial exchanges involve elements of information
exchange... about price, quality, satisfaction, whatever.
To put it in a more purely political context, should I be permitted
to organize a large rally opposing a gasoline tax and printing many
signs opposing such a tax, but not allowed to support with money a
candidate whose main issue is to overturn that very tax. Would I be
allowed to drive to the next state over and fill my tank there if
they had no such tax? Surely if I did this regularly, there would
be plenty of information going to the legislature that the tax is
being evaded in a legal commercial manner. Why should supporting
the candidate be the only method of speech that is regulated and
considered commerce?
I fear a world where we attempt to separate commerce and speech
totally... What if congress passed a law outlawing all printing
presses? Surely by your view this would be legal since it would be
content neutral, and only affecting the commercial transaction of
putting ink on paper (Or in your example, buying the pen and
paper).
If I pay a vagrant to leave me alone and stop asking for spare
change, is that commerce or speach? Or does it depend upon my
motivations for giving him the money? What if I give him a place to
stay? Am I bribing him? Why do you assume that paying a politician
to help him win is the same as a bribe? Would not all such payments
to advocacy groups be bribes? If I went insane and contributed to
the Sierra Club is that not political speech? What about
subscribing to Reason? Is all this purely commerce, sice money is
changing hands?
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